AIM • FINAL YEAR MBBS
KMU Past Paper Practice
Topic 4. Acute Poisoning, Toxicological Emergencies & Envenomation
20 original KMU-style A-type Single Best Answer MCQs • Medicine • MS Module
MCQ 1
Question:
A 36-year-old pesticide-store worker becomes dizzy and nauseated after a container spills over his clothes. He is conscious and breathing comfortably. Staff preparing to examine him notice a strong chemical odor. What action should accompany his initial assessment to prevent further exposure?
Options:
Give oral activated charcoal immediately
Remove contaminated clothing and wash exposed skin
Induce vomiting before examining him
Apply an occlusive dressing to the exposed skin
Wait for the chemical analysis before decontamination
Correct Answer: Remove contaminated clothing and wash exposed skin
Explanation: Removing contaminated clothing and washing exposed skin limits ongoing absorption and protects staff from secondary exposure.
MCQ 2
Question:
A 20-year-old student arrives after swallowing tablets from an unlabelled bottle. Her friend supplies the empty blister strips and reports the approximate ingestion time. She is stable. Which information is most useful for early risk assessment?
Options:
Her preferred sleeping position
Her regular dietary pattern
The price of the purchased tablets
The precise drug, possible dose, and ingestion time
Whether the tablets were taken with water
Correct Answer: The precise drug, possible dose, and ingestion time
Explanation: Identifying the likely agent, dose and time helps predict toxicity and select investigations and interventions.
MCQ 3
Question:
A 44-year-old patient with suspected poisoning suddenly develops a generalized tonic-clonic seizure in the emergency department. Oxygen and airway support are being provided. Which medication class is generally used first to stop a toxin-related convulsion?
Options:
Benzodiazepines
Antipsychotics
Beta blockers
Opioid analgesics
Anticholinergics
Correct Answer: Benzodiazepines
Explanation: Benzodiazepines are first-line agents for most toxicological seizures because they rapidly enhance inhibitory GABA signaling.
MCQ 4
Question:
A 31-year-old man has severe vomiting and rapid deep breathing after ingesting an unknown chemical. Arterial blood gas shows pH 7.19 and a low bicarbonate level. Which acid-base disturbance best describes these findings?
Options:
Respiratory alkalosis
Metabolic alkalosis
Compensated respiratory acidosis
Primary respiratory acidosis
Metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation
Correct Answer: Metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation
Explanation: Low pH with low bicarbonate indicates metabolic acidosis; deep breathing reflects respiratory compensation.
MCQ 5
Question:
A 19-year-old woman reports taking extra paracetamol tablets repeatedly over two days for persistent pain. The exact ingestion times are uncertain. Why is a single timed paracetamol nomogram less reliable here?
Options:
It applies only to intravenous exposures
It requires a single known-time acute ingestion
It directly measures hepatic synthetic function
It replaces all liver chemistry testing
It is designed for chronic ethanol exposure
Correct Answer: It requires a single known-time acute ingestion
Explanation: The Rumack–Matthew nomogram is intended for a single acute ingestion with a known time, not repeated or uncertain-time ingestion.
MCQ 6
Question:
A 26-year-old man began N-acetylcysteine after a significant paracetamol ingestion. On review, the team wants to determine whether hepatocellular injury is developing. Which tests are most directly useful for monitoring hepatic injury and function?
Options:
Serum calcium and phosphate
Serum amylase and lipase
Creatine kinase and troponin
ALT/AST and prothrombin time/INR
TSH and free thyroxine
Correct Answer: ALT/AST and prothrombin time/INR
Explanation: Transaminases indicate hepatocellular injury, while INR helps assess hepatic synthetic dysfunction and severity.
MCQ 7
Question:
A 33-year-old man who used an illicit stimulant arrives highly agitated with palpitations and elevated blood pressure. There is no severe respiratory depression. Which treatment is most appropriate initially to reduce agitation and sympathetic overactivity?
Options:
A benzodiazepine in a monitored setting
Routine flumazenil administration
Immediate naloxone infusion
Pralidoxime administration
Oral N-acetylcysteine
Correct Answer: A benzodiazepine in a monitored setting
Explanation: Benzodiazepines reduce stimulant-induced agitation and sympathetic activation; monitoring and supportive care remain essential.
MCQ 8
Question:
A 23-year-old man develops severe muscle pain and dark urine several hours after prolonged agitation following an amphetamine binge. His creatinine has risen. Which process best explains this complication?
Options:
Immune destruction of platelets
Isolated hepatic bile duct obstruction
Direct inhibition of vitamin K activation
Acute pancreatic enzyme activation
Skeletal-muscle breakdown causing myoglobin release
Correct Answer: Skeletal-muscle breakdown causing myoglobin release
Explanation: Rhabdomyolysis releases myoglobin, which can injure renal tubules and contribute to acute kidney injury.
MCQ 9
Question:
A 48-year-old woman is drowsy after an alleged benzodiazepine overdose. Her ECG is normal, but relatives say she also took an unknown antidepressant. Which reason best supports caution before giving a benzodiazepine antagonist?
Options:
It invariably causes liver failure
It prevents oxygen from binding hemoglobin
It may unmask seizures from a proconvulsant co-ingestant
It produces a cholinergic crisis
It irreversibly blocks opioid receptors
Correct Answer: It may unmask seizures from a proconvulsant co-ingestant
Explanation: Flumazenil can precipitate seizures in mixed overdoses involving proconvulsant agents; supportive care is often safer.
MCQ 10
Question:
A 55-year-old pesticide sprayer has salivation, wheeze and muscle fasciculations after a suspected exposure. Alongside clinical treatment, which laboratory result supports exposure to a cholinesterase-inhibiting insecticide?
Options:
Increased serum lipase activity
Reduced plasma cholinesterase activity
Elevated thyroid stimulating hormone
High serum vitamin B12 concentration
Increased serum ferritin concentration
Correct Answer: Reduced plasma cholinesterase activity
Explanation: Reduced cholinesterase activity supports exposure to an organophosphate, although treatment remains guided by clinical toxicity.
MCQ 11
Question:
Two days after initial improvement from organophosphate poisoning, a hospitalized patient develops neck flexor weakness and difficulty breathing despite little bronchorrhea. What complication should be suspected?
Options:
Acute withdrawal from ethanol
Delayed carbon monoxide encephalopathy
Anticholinergic delirium
Intermediate syndrome with respiratory muscle weakness
Recurrent methanol intoxication
Correct Answer: Intermediate syndrome with respiratory muscle weakness
Explanation: Intermediate syndrome may develop after the acute cholinergic phase and cause proximal or respiratory muscle weakness.
MCQ 12
Question:
A 30-year-old man is being treated for anticholinergic poisoning. He is restless, febrile and unable to pass urine. Which intervention addresses a complication directly caused by peripheral muscarinic blockade?
Options:
Assess bladder distension and relieve significant retention
Give pralidoxime for neuromuscular weakness
Give methanol antidote to correct acidosis
Encourage exertion to induce sweating
Administer N-acetylcysteine for liver protection
Correct Answer: Assess bladder distension and relieve significant retention
Explanation: Antimuscarinic effects impair bladder contraction; recognition and relief of significant urinary retention may be necessary.
MCQ 13
Question:
A 51-year-old man with acute ethanol intoxication repeatedly vomits while lying flat and becomes increasingly somnolent. What complication is the immediate concern that guides positioning and observation?
Options:
Optic neuropathy
Disseminated coagulopathy
Delayed renal stones
Severe hyperthyroidism
Aspiration of gastric contents
Correct Answer: Aspiration of gastric contents
Explanation: Impaired airway reflexes during intoxication make aspiration a major danger, particularly with vomiting and reduced consciousness.
MCQ 14
Question:
A 37-year-old patient presents soon after drinking an unknown clear industrial fluid. An elevated osmolar gap is detected, but the arterial pH is initially near normal. Later, a high-anion-gap metabolic acidosis appears. What best explains this evolution?
Options:
Immediate irreversible hemoglobin binding
Gradual conversion of a toxic alcohol into acidic metabolites
Progressive muscarinic receptor stimulation
Delayed release of snake venom from the gut
Accumulation of benzodiazepine active metabolites
Correct Answer: Gradual conversion of a toxic alcohol into acidic metabolites
Explanation: Toxic alcohols may initially raise the osmolar gap; metabolism then generates organic acids and a high-anion-gap acidosis.
MCQ 15
Question:
A 45-year-old woman recovers from an episode of carbon monoxide exposure and is discharged after appropriate treatment. Her family asks why neurological review is advised despite early improvement. Which late complication is important?
Options:
Progressive hemolytic anemia due to vitamin deficiency
Immediate cholinergic muscle fasciculation
Delayed cognitive and neuropsychiatric impairment
Chronic gastrointestinal corrosive stricture
Late venom-induced limb ischemia
Correct Answer: Delayed cognitive and neuropsychiatric impairment
Explanation: Delayed neurological sequelae after carbon monoxide poisoning can include cognitive, behavioral and movement disturbances.
MCQ 16
Question:
A rural patient is admitted after a suspected venomous snakebite. He has no active bleeding, but clotting abnormalities are suspected and laboratory access is limited. Which bedside assessment may help detect venom-related coagulopathy when performed correctly?
Options:
Random capillary blood glucose
Peak expiratory flow measurement
Direct ophthalmoscopy
20-minute whole blood clotting test
Bedside urinary ketone testing
Correct Answer: 20-minute whole blood clotting test
Explanation: The 20-minute whole blood clotting test can support recognition of venom-induced coagulopathy where suitable laboratory testing is unavailable.
MCQ 17
Question:
During antivenom infusion for systemic snake envenomation, a 32-year-old patient develops wheeze, generalized urticaria and hypotension. What is the most appropriate immediate response?
Options:
Stop the infusion and treat suspected anaphylaxis promptly
Continue the infusion without reassessment
Perform gastric lavage to remove the antivenom
Administer activated charcoal orally
Apply a tight tourniquet above the bite
Correct Answer: Stop the infusion and treat suspected anaphylaxis promptly
Explanation: Wheeze, urticaria and hypotension during infusion suggest anaphylaxis, requiring immediate treatment including intramuscular adrenaline.
MCQ 18
Question:
A 3-year-old child swallows a small amount of kerosene stored in a beverage bottle and then starts coughing. A relative requests gastric lavage. Which risk most strongly weighs against lavage?
Options:
Accelerated hepatic conjugation
Severe hyperglycemia
Delayed optic nerve injury
Nicotine-like receptor stimulation
Aspiration causing chemical pneumonitis
Correct Answer: Aspiration causing chemical pneumonitis
Explanation: Hydrocarbon aspiration can cause serious chemical pneumonitis; induced vomiting and gastric lavage increase that risk.
MCQ 19
Question:
A patient undergoing carefully selected gastric lavage develops sudden coughing, falling oxygen saturation and respiratory distress. Which complication should the team suspect immediately?
Options:
Delayed medication withdrawal
Aspiration of gastric contents into the airway
Progressive vitamin K deficiency
Inhibition of hepatic gluconeogenesis
Hemolysis from carbon monoxide binding
Correct Answer: Aspiration of gastric contents into the airway
Explanation: Cough and hypoxemia during lavage suggest aspiration, a serious procedural hazard requiring immediate airway reassessment.
MCQ 20
Question:
The parents of a teenager treated for an accidental household chemical ingestion ask how to prevent another episode. They explain that cleaning liquid was kept in an unlabelled soft-drink bottle. Which prevention advice is most appropriate?
Options:
Keep chemicals alongside food for easy identification
Add flavoring so the contents are recognizable
Store chemicals in original labeled containers out of children’s reach
Transfer chemicals into smaller unmarked containers
Rely on verbal warnings without changing storage
Correct Answer: Store chemicals in original labeled containers out of children’s reach
Explanation: Original labeled packaging and secure storage reduce accidental ingestion and improve identification when exposure occurs.