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Neuroscience-III Module โ€” Final Year MBBS

AIM LEARNING CYCLE | FINAL YEAR MBBS

KMU Past Paper Practice

Topic 8. Intracranial Space-Occupying Lesions, Pediatric Macrocephaly & Head Injury

Neuroscience-III | 20 A-Type Single Best Answer MCQs

KMU-style practice questions โ€” not claimed to be original past-paper questions.

MCQ 1

Question:

A 34-year-old woman presents with progressive headache and difficulty seeing objects on either side while looking straight ahead. Examination demonstrates loss of temporal visual fields in both eyes. MRI reveals a sellar mass extending superiorly. Which structure is most likely being compressed?

Optic nerves within the orbits

Optic chiasm

Lateral geniculate bodies

Occipital visual cortex

Oculomotor nerves

Correct Answer: Optic chiasm
Explanation: A sellar mass extending upward may compress the crossing nasal retinal fibers at the optic chiasm, producing bitemporal hemianopia.

MCQ 2

Question:

A 52-year-old patient develops progressive unilateral hearing loss, tinnitus and imbalance. MRI reveals a well-defined enhancing mass at the cerebellopontine angle extending into the internal auditory canal. Which lesion is most likely?

Pituitary macroadenoma

Frontal lobe glioma

Craniopharyngioma

Vestibular schwannoma

Falx meningioma

Correct Answer: Vestibular schwannoma
Explanation: Vestibular schwannoma arises from Schwann cells of the vestibular division of cranial nerve VIII, commonly producing unilateral sensorineural hearing loss and imbalance.

MCQ 3

Question:

A 43-year-old patient experiences focal seizures affecting the right hand. MRI identifies a small lesion adjacent to the left precentral gyrus. Which feature most strongly determines the need for careful neurosurgical planning before removal?

Proximity to functionally important motor cortex

Presence of headache without vomiting

Absence of a family history of epilepsy

Normal findings on peripheral nerve examination

Patient age below fifty years

Correct Answer: Proximity to functionally important motor cortex
Explanation: Surgical planning must consider functional anatomy because injury to the precentral motor cortex can cause permanent contralateral weakness.

MCQ 4

Question:

A 48-year-old man presents with headache and progressive personality change. MRI demonstrates a deeply located intracranial lesion. Imaging cannot reliably distinguish between neoplastic and inflammatory causes, and major resection would carry substantial neurological risk. Which approach may establish the diagnosis while limiting surgical tissue injury?

Repeated electroencephalography

Diagnostic lumbar puncture in every case

Stereotactic tissue biopsy

Serial plain skull radiography

Empirical radiotherapy without tissue assessment

Correct Answer: Stereotactic tissue biopsy
Explanation: Image-guided stereotactic biopsy can obtain tissue from selected deep lesions when diagnosis remains uncertain and open resection carries significant risk.

MCQ 5

Question:

A 26-year-old patient undergoes treatment for a cerebral abscess arising from a contiguous infection. Despite appropriate intravenous antibiotics, repeat imaging shows a large accessible collection and persistent neurological symptoms. Which additional intervention is most appropriate?

Long-term observation without reassessment

Routine prophylactic radiotherapy

Repeated diagnostic lumbar puncture

Discontinuation of antimicrobial treatment

Neurosurgical drainage of the collection

Correct Answer: Neurosurgical drainage of the collection
Explanation: A large accessible abscess with persistent symptoms may require aspiration or drainage alongside appropriate antibiotics to control infection and relieve mass effect.

MCQ 6

Question:

A 50-year-old patient with an intracranial neoplasm develops increasing neurological disability. MRI demonstrates a mass associated with extensive high-signal changes in surrounding white matter on T2-weighted images. These changes are attributed to bloodโ€“brain barrier disruption. Which process is responsible?

Cytotoxic edema due to acute ischemia

Vasogenic edema from extracellular fluid accumulation

Primary neuronal demyelination without edema

Increased cerebrospinal fluid production

Physiological expansion of cerebral ventricles

Correct Answer: Vasogenic edema from extracellular fluid accumulation
Explanation: Tumor-related bloodโ€“brain barrier disruption permits fluid to accumulate in extracellular white-matter spaces, producing vasogenic edema and additional mass effect.

MCQ 7

Question:

A 3-year-old child presents with progressively worsening morning vomiting, impaired balance and abnormal gait. MRI reveals a midline posterior fossa mass involving the cerebellar vermis. Which clinical finding is most consistent with the anatomical site of this lesion?

Isolated unilateral facial sensory loss

Pure loss of language comprehension

Complete unilateral visual field loss

Truncal instability with a broad-based gait

Isolated distal lower motor neuron weakness

Correct Answer: Truncal instability with a broad-based gait
Explanation: The cerebellar vermis coordinates trunk posture and balance; lesions commonly produce truncal ataxia and a broad-based, unsteady gait.

MCQ 8

Question:

A 7-year-old child is evaluated for a large head. Head circumference is above the expected range, but serial measurements are stable. Neurological examination is normal. Imaging reveals an increased volume of brain tissue without ventricular dilatation or an intracranial mass. Which term best describes this finding?

Megalencephaly

Obstructive hydrocephalus

Subdural hygroma

Craniosynostosis

Intracranial hemorrhage

Correct Answer: Megalencephaly
Explanation: Megalencephaly refers to increased brain parenchymal volume, whereas hydrocephalus causes enlargement of CSF-containing ventricular spaces.

MCQ 9

Question:

A 10-month-old child previously treated with a ventriculoperitoneal shunt is brought to hospital with fever, irritability, vomiting and poor feeding. Examination reveals tenderness along the shunt tract. Which complication should be suspected?

Physiological cranial enlargement

Uncomplicated postoperative adaptation

Primary peripheral nerve injury

Normal developmental head growth

Ventriculoperitoneal shunt infection

Correct Answer: Ventriculoperitoneal shunt infection
Explanation: Fever, irritability and shunt-tract tenderness following shunt placement suggest infection and require urgent assessment for shunt-related complications.

MCQ 10

Question:

A 5-month-old infant is referred for suspected macrocephaly. The pediatrician reviews serial head circumference measurements and assesses developmental milestones, fontanelle tension and parental head size. Which finding most strongly supports the need for further neurological investigation?

Consistent familial large head size

Normal neurological examination

Progressive developmental regression

Stable percentile tracking since birth

Normal feeding and activity pattern

Correct Answer: Progressive developmental regression
Explanation: Loss of previously acquired developmental abilities suggests underlying neurological disease and warrants investigation rather than routine observation alone.

MCQ 11

Question:

A 32-year-old patient sustains a head injury after falling from a height. Examination reveals bruising around both eyes and clear fluid draining from the nose. CT suggests an anterior cranial fossa fracture. Which complication is most likely?

Peripheral facial nerve paralysis

Cerebrospinal fluid rhinorrhea

Isolated optic neuritis

Acute middle ear infection

Primary retinal detachment

Correct Answer: Cerebrospinal fluid rhinorrhea
Explanation: A skull-base fracture may tear the dura, allowing CSF to leak through the nose. CSF leakage also increases the risk of meningitis.

MCQ 12

Question:

A 28-year-old man sustains blunt head trauma. On neurological assessment he opens his eyes only to pain, produces incomprehensible sounds and withdraws his arm from a painful stimulus. What is his total Glasgow Coma Scale score?

7

9

10

8

11

Correct Answer: 8
Explanation: Eye opening to pain = 2, incomprehensible sounds = 2 and withdrawal from pain = 4. Total GCS = 8, indicating severe impairment of consciousness.

MCQ 13

Question:

A 67-year-old man receiving oral anticoagulant therapy falls at home and strikes his head. He remains alert but complains of a persistent headache. Which factor particularly increases concern for significant intracranial bleeding despite an initially reassuring examination?

Regular use of corrective spectacles

Absence of scalp laceration

Normal peripheral pulses

Preserved orientation to time

Current anticoagulant treatment

Correct Answer: Current anticoagulant treatment
Explanation: Anticoagulant therapy increases the risk of traumatic intracranial hemorrhage, so head-injury imaging and observation decisions must account for anticoagulant use.

MCQ 14

Question:

A 36-year-old patient is admitted following head trauma. Neurological examination shows an abnormal flexion response of both upper limbs to painful stimulation. Which Glasgow Coma Scale motor response category describes this finding?

Normal flexion withdrawal

Abnormal flexion to pain

Localization of painful stimulus

Abnormal extension to pain

Obeying verbal commands

Correct Answer: Abnormal flexion to pain
Explanation: Abnormal flexion, also called a decorticate-type response, scores M3 on the GCS and indicates significant neurological dysfunction.

MCQ 15

Question:

A 40-year-old patient with severe traumatic brain injury is being monitored in a neurosurgical unit. His intracranial pressure increases while systemic mean arterial pressure remains unchanged. What is the expected effect on cerebral perfusion pressure?

It increases proportionally to intracranial pressure

It becomes independent of systemic blood pressure

It falls as intracranial pressure rises

It remains unchanged despite pressure elevation

It rises because cerebral venous pressure decreases

Correct Answer: It falls as intracranial pressure rises
Explanation: Cerebral perfusion pressure is approximately mean arterial pressure minus intracranial pressure. Rising ICP therefore reduces CPP when arterial pressure is unchanged.

MCQ 16

Question:

A 22-year-old man is involved in a road traffic accident. Examination reveals a depressed skull fracture with an overlying scalp wound and suspected contamination. Which complication is particularly associated with this injury pattern?

Intracranial infection due to an open fracture

Progressive benign cranial enlargement

Idiopathic intracranial hypertension

Isolated degenerative cervical disease

Primary hereditary cerebral atrophy

Correct Answer: Intracranial infection due to an open fracture
Explanation: An open depressed skull fracture can permit microorganisms to enter deeper tissues, increasing the risk of wound infection, meningitis and intracranial abscess.

MCQ 17

Question:

A 30-year-old patient is evaluated after a severe head injury. CT demonstrates scattered areas of hemorrhage and edema within the frontal and temporal cerebral parenchyma, particularly near the inferior surfaces of the brain. Which injury best explains these findings?

Isolated cranial suture separation

Chronic ventricular obstruction

Primary pituitary neoplasm

Traumatic cerebral contusions

Congenital arachnoid malformation

Correct Answer: Traumatic cerebral contusions
Explanation: Cerebral contusions represent bruising and hemorrhagic injury of brain parenchyma, commonly affecting frontal and temporal surfaces after blunt trauma.

MCQ 18

Question:

A 45-year-old patient with severe traumatic brain injury develops increasing agitation and declining consciousness. The treating team decides that repeated neurological assessments are necessary. Which change provides the clearest evidence of neurological deterioration?

Improvement in response to verbal commands

New reduction in Glasgow Coma Scale motor response

Maintenance of symmetrical reactive pupils

Stable respiratory and circulatory parameters

Recovery of previously reduced limb movement

Correct Answer: New reduction in Glasgow Coma Scale motor response
Explanation: A worsening motor response on serial GCS assessment is an important indicator of neurological deterioration and requires urgent reassessment.

MCQ 19

Question:

A 35-year-old man is reviewed after cranial surgery for traumatic brain injury. His neurological condition has improved, but the family reports that he has stopped taking prescribed antiseizure medication without consulting the treating team. Which counselling point is most appropriate?

All antiseizure medicines should continue indefinitely after head injury

Prescribed treatment can be stopped whenever symptoms improve

Medication decisions are unrelated to postoperative neurological status

Antiseizure treatment removes the need for follow-up visits

Medication should be taken as prescribed and reviewed with the treating clinician

Correct Answer: Medication should be taken as prescribed and reviewed with the treating clinician
Explanation: Antiseizure medication may be prescribed for selected head-injury patients. Duration depends on the indication, and patients should not independently discontinue prescribed therapy.

MCQ 20

Question:

A 54-year-old patient is preparing for discharge following neurosurgical treatment of a traumatic cranial injury. The family lives far from the hospital and is concerned about caring for him at home. Which discharge plan best supports safe postoperative care?

Discharge without written advice because the patient is conscious

Allow unrestricted physical activity as soon as the wound is dry

Provide wound-care guidance, warning signs, medicines and a follow-up plan

Advise the family to avoid communicating with the surgical team

Arrange follow-up only if a new skull fracture develops

Correct Answer: Provide wound-care guidance, warning signs, medicines and a follow-up plan
Explanation: Safe neurosurgical discharge includes clear wound-care instructions, adherence to prescribed treatment, recognition of complications and timely follow-up.

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