Course Content
Blood & Immunology Module — 3rd Year MBBS
AIM • KMU EXAM PRACTICE

KMU Past Paper Practice

Hypersensitivity, Immune Tolerance, Autoimmunity, Immunodeficiency and Immunomodulatory Drugs

3rd Year MBBS • 20 A-type Single Best Answer MCQs

MCQ 1

Question:

A 17-year-old boy with a family history of atopy is exposed to a new environmental allergen. He has no symptoms during the first exposure, but allergen-specific IgE becomes detectable afterward. Which cytokine activity most directly promotes this sensitization process?

Options:

Activation of macrophages by interferon-gamma
Promotion of IgE production by IL-4 and IL-13
Suppression of B cells by regulatory cytokines
Recruitment of neutrophils through complement activation
Activation of cytotoxic T cells by IL-2
Correct Answer:
Promotion of IgE production by IL-4 and IL-13
Explanation:
Th2-derived IL-4 and IL-13 promote B-cell switching toward IgE production, allowing IgE to bind mast cells and establish sensitization before later allergen exposure.

MCQ 2

Question:

A 28-year-old man presents with hemoptysis and renal dysfunction. Antibodies are directed against basement-membrane antigens in the lungs and kidneys. Which mechanism is most likely to produce tissue injury in this disorder?

Options:

IgE-mediated release of mast-cell mediators
Deposition of soluble circulating complexes
Direct killing by sensitized CD8-positive cells
Complement activation with leukocyte-mediated inflammation
Functional stimulation of hormone receptors
Correct Answer:
Complement activation with leukocyte-mediated inflammation
Explanation:
Antibodies bound to fixed tissue antigens can activate complement and recruit inflammatory leukocytes, producing the type II tissue injury seen in Goodpasture syndrome.

MCQ 3

Question:

Several hours after an antigen is injected into the skin of a previously sensitized person, a painful localized area of edema, hemorrhage and inflammation develops at the injection site. Which reaction best explains this finding?

Options:

Arthus reaction
Systemic anaphylaxis
Contact dermatitis
Autoimmune cytopenia
Graft rejection
Correct Answer:
Arthus reaction
Explanation:
The Arthus reaction is a localized immune-complex reaction in which locally formed complexes activate complement and produce acute vascular inflammation.

MCQ 4

Question:

A medical student receives an intradermal test antigen. Forty-eight hours later, the site is firm and indurated because sensitized lymphocytes have recruited and activated inflammatory cells. Which effector mechanism is principally responsible?

Options:

IgM-mediated erythrocyte destruction
IgE-mediated vascular permeability
Immune-complex activation of complement
Autoantibody-mediated receptor stimulation
Cytokine-mediated macrophage recruitment and activation
Correct Answer:
Cytokine-mediated macrophage recruitment and activation
Explanation:
Delayed hypersensitivity can be mediated by sensitized CD4-positive T cells whose cytokines recruit and activate macrophages, producing induration after many hours.

MCQ 5

Question:

Trauma exposes a self-antigen that had previously been relatively inaccessible to circulating lymphocytes. An immune response against the newly exposed tissue subsequently develops. Which normal protective mechanism has been disrupted?

Options:

Positive thymic selection
Immunoglobulin class switching
Limited exposure of lymphocytes to self-antigen
Complement-mediated immune clearance
Mast-cell sensitization by IgE
Correct Answer:
Limited exposure of lymphocytes to self-antigen
Explanation:
Relative sequestration of some self-antigens helps prevent autoreactive lymphocyte activation; tissue injury may expose these antigens and contribute to loss of tolerance.

MCQ 6

Question:

A patient receives hematopoietic stem cells containing mature donor lymphocytes. The donor cells recognize recipient antigens as foreign. Which additional circumstance is particularly important for development of graft-versus-host disease?

Options:

Presence of circulating recipient IgE
Failure of the recipient to eliminate donor lymphocytes
Absence of donor antigen-presenting cells
Formation of recipient immune complexes
Activation of recipient mast cells
Correct Answer:
Failure of the recipient to eliminate donor lymphocytes
Explanation:
GVHD requires immunocompetent donor T cells, recipient antigens recognized as foreign and insufficient recipient immunity to remove the attacking donor lymphocytes.

MCQ 7

Question:

Two weeks after renal transplantation, a patient develops graft dysfunction. Biopsy demonstrates vascular injury, and circulating donor-specific antibodies are detected. Which mechanism most directly accounts for the graft damage?

Options:

Donor T-cell attack on recipient tissues
Progressive fibrosis without active immunity
IgE-mediated mast-cell activation in the graft
Loss of peripheral self-tolerance
Antibody-mediated injury to graft blood vessels
Correct Answer:
Antibody-mediated injury to graft blood vessels
Explanation:
Acute rejection may have an antibody-mediated component in which newly formed donor-specific antibodies target graft endothelium and produce vascular injury.

MCQ 8

Question:

A 34-year-old woman develops fatigue, jaundice and anemia. Her erythrocytes are coated with autoantibodies and are removed predominantly by phagocytic cells. Which mechanism best accounts for the anemia?

Options:

Opsonization followed by phagocytic removal
Delayed cytokine-mediated inflammation
Immune-complex deposition in small vessels
IgE-mediated mast-cell degranulation
Receptor stimulation by autoantibodies
Correct Answer:
Opsonization followed by phagocytic removal
Explanation:
In autoimmune hemolytic anemia, antibodies coat red cells and promote their recognition and removal by phagocytes, producing antibody-mediated cytopenia.

MCQ 9

Question:

A genetically susceptible patient develops autoimmune tissue injury after significant local tissue damage. Which event can most plausibly contribute to initiation of the abnormal immune response?

Options:

Permanent suppression of antigen presentation
Selective loss of circulating neutrophils
Inhibition of all helper T-cell activity
Release or alteration of self-antigens with inflammation
Complete removal of self-reactive lymphocytes
Correct Answer:
Release or alteration of self-antigens with inflammation
Explanation:
Tissue injury can expose or modify self-antigens and generate inflammatory signals that favor activation of previously harmless autoreactive lymphocytes.

MCQ 10

Question:

An infant develops recurrent infections and has markedly reduced thymic development. Serum immunoglobulin production is relatively less affected than cell-mediated immunity. Which category of immune defect is most consistent with this pattern?

Options:

Isolated complement deficiency
Primary phagocyte dysfunction
Primary T-lymphocyte deficiency
Isolated antibody deficiency
Secondary nutritional deficiency
Correct Answer:
Primary T-lymphocyte deficiency
Explanation:
Thymic developmental failure primarily impairs T-cell maturation and therefore cell-mediated immunity, as classically occurs in DiGeorge syndrome.

MCQ 11

Question:

A young adult has recurrent infections involving respiratory mucosal surfaces. Most major immune-cell populations are present, but one immunoglobulin class important for mucosal defense is deficient. Which disorder best fits this presentation?

Options:

Selective IgA deficiency
Severe combined immunodeficiency
Chronic granulomatous disease
DiGeorge syndrome
Terminal complement deficiency
Correct Answer:
Selective IgA deficiency
Explanation:
IgA is important at mucosal surfaces, so selective deficiency may present with recurrent respiratory or gastrointestinal infections despite otherwise preserved immunity.

MCQ 12

Question:

In a patient with chronic HIV infection, viral persistence continues despite progressive damage to helper T lymphocytes. Infection of which additional cell population contributes importantly to persistence of the virus?

Options:

Mature erythrocytes
Platelets
Eosinophils
Neutrophils
Macrophages and related cells
Correct Answer:
Macrophages and related cells
Explanation:
HIV can infect macrophages and related cells in addition to CD4-positive T lymphocytes, contributing to viral persistence and continuing immune-system injury.

MCQ 13

Question:

A renal transplant recipient receiving a calcineurin inhibitor develops hypertension, increased hair growth and gingival overgrowth. Which drug is most likely responsible?

Options:

Mycophenolate mofetil
Cyclosporine
Sirolimus
Methotrexate
Basiliximab
Correct Answer:
Cyclosporine
Explanation:
Cyclosporine can cause nephrotoxicity and hypertension and is classically associated with gingival overgrowth and increased hair growth.

MCQ 14

Question:

A patient undergoing organ transplantation receives a monoclonal antibody that reduces activation of T lymphocytes by targeting the alpha chain of the IL-2 receptor. Which agent has been administered?

Options:

Rituximab
Antithymocyte globulin
Infliximab
Basiliximab
Interferon-alpha
Correct Answer:
Basiliximab
Explanation:
Basiliximab binds CD25, the alpha chain of the IL-2 receptor on activated T cells, and thereby reduces IL-2-driven lymphocyte proliferation.

MCQ 15

Question:

A patient with severe autoimmune disease receives a cytotoxic immunosuppressive drug. During follow-up, he develops painful hematuria caused by drug-related bladder toxicity. Which agent is most likely responsible?

Options:

Mycophenolate mofetil
Cyclosporine
Cyclophosphamide
Basiliximab
Sirolimus
Correct Answer:
Cyclophosphamide
Explanation:
Cyclophosphamide is a potent cytotoxic immunosuppressant whose important toxicities include bone-marrow suppression, infertility and hemorrhagic cystitis.

MCQ 16

Question:

A woman receiving an antimetabolite for chronic autoimmune disease develops oral mucosal injury, elevated liver enzymes and bone-marrow suppression. Which immunomodulating drug best matches this adverse-effect profile?

Options:

Tacrolimus
Cyclosporine
Basiliximab
Interleukin-2
Methotrexate
Correct Answer:
Methotrexate
Explanation:
Methotrexate has important immunomodulatory actions in autoimmune disease and can produce mucosal injury, hepatotoxicity and bone-marrow suppression.

MCQ 17

Question:

A patient with a chronic immune-mediated inflammatory disorder improves after starting a monoclonal antibody that neutralizes tumor necrosis factor. Several months later, a previously controlled latent infection becomes clinically active. Which treatment most likely contributed to this complication?

Options:

Anti-TNF monoclonal antibody therapy
Colony-stimulating factor therapy
Interleukin-2 therapy
BCG immunotherapy
Interferon therapy
Correct Answer:
Anti-TNF monoclonal antibody therapy
Explanation:
TNF contributes to effective host defense, so therapeutic TNF blockade can increase susceptibility to serious infection and permit reactivation of latent infection.

MCQ 18

Question:

A patient with a condition requiring immune stimulation is prescribed a cytokine with antiviral, antiproliferative and immunomodulatory properties. Which class of agents best fits this description?

Options:

Calcineurin inhibitors
Antimetabolites
Interferons
Corticosteroids
Anti-TNF antibodies
Correct Answer:
Interferons
Explanation:
Interferons are immunostimulatory cytokines with antiviral, antiproliferative and immune-modifying actions and have selected therapeutic uses.

MCQ 19

Question:

An immunostimulant is selected for a patient with a malignancy in which enhancement of cellular immune activity is desired. The drug acts by promoting activation and proliferation of T lymphocytes. Which mediator is being used therapeutically?

Options:

Tumor necrosis factor inhibitor
Antithymocyte globulin
Basiliximab
Interleukin-2
Mycophenolate mofetil
Correct Answer:
Interleukin-2
Explanation:
IL-2 promotes T-cell activation and proliferation and can therefore be used to enhance cellular antitumor immune responses in selected malignancies.

MCQ 20

Question:

A patient with a superficial bladder malignancy receives an immunomodulating agent directly into the bladder to provoke a local immune response against tumor cells. Which treatment is being used?

Options:

Rituximab therapy
Intravesical BCG therapy
Cyclosporine therapy
Basiliximab therapy
Mycophenolate therapy
Correct Answer:
Intravesical BCG therapy
Explanation:
Intravesical BCG acts as an immunostimulant and generates a local antitumor immune response that can be therapeutically useful in selected bladder malignancies.
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