KMU Past Paper Practice

Question:

A blood bank separates plasma from a fresh whole-blood donation. The plasma is intended for a bleeding patient who requires replacement of several coagulation factors, including factors that lose activity during prolonged storage. Which next processing step best preserves its therapeutic value?

Options:

Correct Answer:
Freeze the separated plasma promptly

Explanation: Prompt freezing preserves coagulation proteins, including relatively labile factors, allowing the plasma to function as fresh frozen plasma when later required.

Question:

A transfusion laboratory prepares a small-volume product rich in fibrinogen from previously frozen plasma. Which laboratory process produces this component?

Options:

Correct Answer:
Recovery of proteins precipitated during controlled cold thawing

Explanation: Cryoprecipitate is prepared by controlled cold thawing of frozen plasma and collecting the cold-insoluble protein precipitate, which is especially rich in fibrinogen.

Question:

A patient with bone-marrow suppression has severe thrombocytopenia and persistent mucosal oozing. Coagulation factor levels are adequate. Which physiological step is the transfused component intended primarily to restore?

Options:

Correct Answer:
Formation of the primary platelet plug

Explanation: Platelets are central to primary hemostasis by adhering and aggregating at sites of vascular injury; they do not replace soluble coagulation factors.

Question:

A hospital replaces routine whole-blood use with component therapy for most patients. Which advantage best explains this policy?

Options:

Correct Answer:
It replaces the required deficiency while limiting unnecessary components

Explanation: Component therapy targets the specific physiological deficiency and avoids exposing the patient to blood constituents that are not required.

Question:

Ten minutes after a red-cell transfusion begins, a patient develops sudden chills, chest discomfort and hypotension. The medical officer suspects a serious transfusion reaction. What is the most appropriate immediate action?

Options:

Correct Answer:
Stop the transfusion and maintain intravenous access while evaluating the event

Explanation: A suspected serious reaction requires immediate cessation of the transfusion, maintenance of IV access, identity checks and prompt investigation through the transfusion service.

Question:

A woman develops marked thrombocytopenia several days after receiving a blood transfusion. Her platelet count had been normal before transfusion, and the clinical picture suggests an immune process. Which mechanism best explains the complication?

Options:

Correct Answer:
Immune-mediated destruction of platelets after transfusion

Explanation: Post-transfusion purpura is a delayed immune complication characterized by severe thrombocytopenia resulting from antibody-mediated platelet destruction.

Question:

A patient develops fever shortly after a transfusion starts but remains hemodynamically stable. A junior doctor assumes the event is a minor febrile reaction. Which approach best reflects safe transfusion practice?

Options:

Correct Answer:
Evaluate for hemolysis and bacterial contamination before assuming a benign cause

Explanation: Fever can occur in a febrile non-hemolytic reaction, but dangerous causes such as acute hemolysis and bacterial contamination must first be considered.

Question:

Several blood units collected during one session later show bacterial contamination. Donor infection screening had been satisfactory. Which preventive measure at the collection stage most directly addresses this problem?

Options:

Correct Answer:
Use sterile equipment with proper donor skin antisepsis

Explanation: Aseptic collection and proper skin preparation reduce introduction of bacteria into the blood unit during venepuncture and collection.

Question:

During transport from a regional blood bank, several components remain outside their recommended controlled storage conditions for a prolonged period. Why is this considered a blood-safety failure?

Options:

Correct Answer:
It may damage components and permit microbial proliferation

Explanation: Blood components require appropriate controlled storage and transport because unsuitable conditions can impair component quality and increase contamination-related risk.

Question:

A recipient develops an unexpected infection weeks after transfusion. The hospital needs to identify the original donation, processing history and other components produced from that donor. Which blood-safety principle makes this investigation possible?

Options:

Correct Answer:
Complete traceability from donor collection to recipient use

Explanation: Traceability links each donation and component to its processing and recipient, allowing investigation and recall when an adverse event is detected.

Question:

A ward introduces structured observation of patients during blood administration, including assessment for new fever, dyspnea, rash, pain and hypotension. What is the main safety benefit of this practice?

Options:

Correct Answer:
It allows early recognition of an evolving adverse reaction

Explanation: Clinical monitoring allows transfusion reactions to be recognized promptly so administration can be stopped and appropriate assessment initiated before further harm occurs.

Question:

An audit finds that some clinically stable patients receive blood components despite having no clear physiological deficiency requiring transfusion. Which corrective policy would most directly improve blood safety?

Options:

Correct Answer:
Restrict transfusion to justified indications and select the required component

Explanation: Rational transfusion avoids unnecessary exposure to infectious, immune and circulatory risks and uses only the component needed for a defined clinical problem.

Question:

A healthy-looking donor has no symptoms but carries a blood-borne viral infection. Which blood-service approach best addresses the risk created by such asymptomatic infection?

Options:

Correct Answer:
Combine donor risk assessment with laboratory infection screening

Explanation: Blood-borne infections can be asymptomatic, so donor history and risk selection must be combined with quality-assured laboratory screening before blood is released.

Question:

A man acquired hepatitis B through parenteral exposure many years ago and subsequently developed persistent infection. Which long-term outcome represents an important consequence of chronic disease?

Options:

Correct Answer:
Cirrhosis with increased risk of hepatocellular carcinoma

Explanation: Persistent HBV infection can cause chronic hepatic injury, progressing to cirrhosis and increasing the risk of hepatocellular carcinoma.

Question:

A 48-year-old man with a history of repeated unsafe injections is found to have chronic hepatitis C infection. Which disease progression is most consistent with the natural consequence highlighted by this infection?

Options:

Correct Answer:
Progressive hepatic fibrosis leading to cirrhosis

Explanation: Chronic HCV can produce persistent hepatic inflammation and progressive fibrosis, eventually leading to cirrhosis and increased liver-cancer risk.

Question:

A person acquires HIV following exposure to infected blood. Over time, the infection produces progressive impairment of adaptive immunity. Which cellular abnormality is central to this process?

Options:

Correct Answer:
Progressive dysfunction and depletion of CD4-positive T lymphocytes

Explanation: HIV targets cells expressing appropriate receptors, particularly CD4-positive T lymphocytes, causing progressive immune dysfunction as these cells are impaired and depleted.

Question:

A recipient with no travel history develops malaria after receiving blood from an infected donor. Which feature of transfusion allows transmission in this situation?

Options:

Correct Answer:
Parasitized donor erythrocytes enter the recipient circulation directly

Explanation: Malaria can be transmitted through transfusion when donor blood contains erythrocytes carrying the parasite, bypassing the usual mosquito route.

Question:

During a ward safety inspection, used needles are seen protruding from an overfilled sharps container. Which corrective measure most directly reduces the risk to healthcare workers?

Options:

Correct Answer:
Replace sharps containers before they become overfilled

Explanation: Overfilled sharps containers increase accidental contact with contaminated needles; timely replacement is a basic engineering and work-practice control.

Question:

A medical student sustains a superficial needle-stick injury while assisting with venepuncture. A colleague advises vigorous squeezing of the wound followed by application of a strong chemical disinfectant. What is the better immediate wound-care approach?

Options:

Correct Answer:
Wash promptly with soap and water and avoid traumatic wound manipulation

Explanation: Immediate gentle washing is appropriate; forceful squeezing, cutting and corrosive chemicals do not improve protection and may cause additional tissue injury.

Question:

Two countries have markedly different burdens of blood-borne viral disease despite using similar diagnostic tests. Public-health teams compare their vaccination coverage, injection practices, background prevalence and strength of blood-screening systems. Which interpretation best explains the difference?

Options:

Correct Answer:
Population prevalence and effectiveness of prevention systems shape transmission burden

Explanation: National burden reflects background prevalence together with vaccination, safe injection practice, blood screening and infection-control performance rather than one laboratory test alone.