AIM Exam Practice
KMU Past Paper Practice
Sympathomimetic Drugs: Adrenergic Pharmacology and Clinical Applications
3rd Year MBBS • 20 A-type Single Best Answer MCQs
MCQ 1
Question:
A 27-year-old man receives a sympathomimetic during a pharmacology practical. The drug increases systolic pressure, lowers diastolic pressure and causes a rise in pulse pressure. Which receptor combination best explains this pattern?
Options:
α₁ and α₂ stimulation
β₁ and β₂ stimulation
D₁ and α₁ stimulation
α₂ and β₂ stimulation
D₁ and β₂ stimulation
Correct Answer: β₁ and β₂ stimulation
Explanation: β₁ stimulation raises cardiac output and systolic pressure, while β₂-mediated vasodilation lowers peripheral resistance and diastolic pressure.
MCQ 2
Question:
A patient develops palpitations after receiving a drug that increases the concentration of endogenous noradrenaline in the synaptic cleft without acting primarily as a receptor agonist. Which mechanism best describes this action?
Options:
Direct α₁-receptor activation
Direct β₁-receptor activation
Enhanced transmitter availability
Blockade of catecholamine synthesis
Inhibition of adrenergic receptors
Correct Answer: Enhanced transmitter availability
Explanation: Indirect sympathomimetics increase the amount of endogenous catecholamine available at adrenergic synapses rather than directly activating receptors.
MCQ 3
Question:
A sympathomimetic cannot be given effectively by mouth because it is rapidly inactivated in the intestinal wall and liver. Which chemical class most closely fits this pharmacokinetic behavior?
Options:
Non-catechol indirect agonist
Catecholamine sympathomimetic
Selective α₂ agonist
Long-acting β₂ agonist
Mixed-action non-catechol drug
Correct Answer: Catecholamine sympathomimetic
Explanation: Catecholamines undergo rapid metabolism by COMT and MAO, producing poor oral bioavailability and a short duration of action.
MCQ 4
Question:
A 54-year-old man receives an adrenergic drug that increases vascular resistance but has little direct action on the myocardium. His pulse slows after administration. Which drug profile best fits this observation?
Options:
Selective β₂ agonist
Selective β₁ agonist
Non-selective β agonist
Predominant α₁ agonist
Predominant D₁ agonist
Correct Answer: Predominant α₁ agonist
Explanation: α₁-mediated vasoconstriction raises arterial pressure, activating the baroreceptor reflex and producing reflex slowing of the heart.
MCQ 5
Question:
A patient with severe bronchospasm receives a drug that relaxes bronchial smooth muscle by increasing intracellular cAMP. Which receptor is most closely linked with this therapeutic effect?
Options:
α₁ receptor
β₁ receptor
D₁ receptor
α₂ receptor
β₂ receptor
Correct Answer: β₂ receptor
Explanation: β₂ stimulation raises cAMP in bronchial smooth muscle, causing relaxation and bronchodilation.
MCQ 6
Question:
A sympathomimetic increases contractility and conduction through the heart with comparatively little direct effect on bronchial smooth muscle. Which receptor is mainly responsible?
Options:
β₁ receptor
α₁ receptor
β₂ receptor
α₂ receptor
D₁ receptor
Correct Answer: β₁ receptor
Explanation: β₁ receptors are concentrated in the heart and increase rate, conduction and myocardial contractility.
MCQ 7
Question:
A patient with an acute allergic reaction receives a drug that simultaneously constricts blood vessels, stimulates the heart and relaxes bronchial smooth muscle. Which pharmacological property permits this broad response?
Options:
Selective α₂ activity
Selective β₁ activity
Selective D₁ activity
Combined α and β activity
Predominant α₁ activity
Correct Answer: Combined α and β activity
Explanation: Broad activation of α₁, β₁ and β₂ receptors explains simultaneous vasoconstriction, cardiac stimulation and bronchodilation.
MCQ 8
Question:
A 63-year-old patient receives a sympathomimetic that causes marked tachycardia together with a fall in peripheral vascular resistance. Which drug would best reproduce this hemodynamic pattern?
Options:
Phenylephrine
Noradrenaline
Isoprenaline
High-dose dopamine
Low-dose phenylephrine
Correct Answer: Isoprenaline
Explanation: Isoprenaline activates β₁ and β₂ receptors, causing strong cardiac stimulation with peripheral vasodilation.
MCQ 9
Question:
A pharmacology student observes that one adrenergic drug raises mean arterial pressure with little β₂-mediated vasodilation. Which receptor pattern best explains this response?
Options:
β₁ with strong β₂ activity
D₁ with weak α₁ activity
α₁ with α₂ activity
α₁ with β₁ and little β₂ activity
β₂ with weak β₁ activity
Correct Answer: α₁ with β₁ and little β₂ activity
Explanation: Strong α₁-mediated vasoconstriction with β₁ cardiac activity and minimal β₂ vasodilation is the characteristic receptor profile of noradrenaline.
MCQ 10
Question:
A 45-year-old patient with severe systemic allergic reaction remains hypotensive and wheezy. Which additional property of adrenaline, apart from vasoconstriction and bronchodilation, helps support the circulation?
Options:
Reduction of myocardial contractility
Increase in cardiac contractility
Suppression of sinoatrial activity
Reduction of venous tone
Blockade of cardiac β receptors
Correct Answer: Increase in cardiac contractility
Explanation: β₁ stimulation increases myocardial contractility and cardiac output, helping restore circulation during severe anaphylaxis.
MCQ 11
Question:
During dopamine infusion, a patient initially demonstrates improved perfusion of selected vascular beds. With a higher infusion rate, cardiac output rises before marked peripheral vasoconstriction develops. Which sequence best describes the receptor progression?
Options:
β₂ → D₁ → α₁
α₁ → β₁ → D₁
D₁ → β₁ → α₁
α₂ → β₂ → β₁
β₁ → α₁ → D₁
Correct Answer: D₁ → β₁ → α₁
Explanation: Dopamine shows dose-dependent predominance from D₁ vascular effects to β₁ cardiac stimulation and then α₁ vasoconstriction.
MCQ 12
Question:
A patient receiving a high infusion rate of dopamine develops cold extremities and increased systemic vascular resistance. Which change in receptor activity best explains this finding?
Options:
Increasing D₁ activation
Increasing α₁ activation
Increasing β₂ activation
Increasing α₂ inhibition
Increasing muscarinic activation
Correct Answer: Increasing α₁ activation
Explanation: At higher doses, dopamine increasingly stimulates α₁ receptors, causing peripheral vasoconstriction and increased systemic vascular resistance.
MCQ 13
Question:
A patient with glaucoma is given a drug that lowers intraocular pressure by reducing secretion from the ciliary processes without producing an osmotic gradient. Which therapeutic principle is being used?
Options:
Carbonic anhydrase inhibition
α₁-mediated vasoconstriction
β₁-mediated cardiac stimulation
Osmotic dehydration of ocular tissue
D₁-mediated ocular vasodilation
Correct Answer: Carbonic anhydrase inhibition
Explanation: Acetazolamide inhibits carbonic anhydrase in the ciliary processes, reducing aqueous humour production and lowering intraocular pressure.
MCQ 14
Question:
A patient with a sudden marked rise in intraocular pressure requires rapid reduction of ocular water content. Which pharmacological approach acts through a plasma-to-eye osmotic gradient?
Options:
α₂ agonist therapy
Carbonic anhydrase inhibition
α₁ agonist therapy
Osmotic therapy with mannitol
β₁ agonist therapy
Correct Answer: Osmotic therapy with mannitol
Explanation: Mannitol increases plasma osmolarity and draws water out of ocular tissues, producing a rapid fall in intraocular pressure.
MCQ 15
Question:
A patient with glaucoma receives an adrenergic agonist that lowers aqueous humour formation rather than producing mydriasis. Which receptor action is most consistent with this effect?
Options:
β₁-receptor stimulation
α₂-receptor stimulation
α₁-receptor stimulation
D₁-receptor stimulation
β₂-receptor stimulation
Correct Answer: α₂-receptor stimulation
Explanation: α₂ agonists such as brimonidine lower intraocular pressure mainly by reducing aqueous humour production.
MCQ 16
Question:
A 48-year-old man taking an MAO inhibitor develops severe hypertension after consuming a fermented meal. The rise in blood pressure reflects excessive release of which endogenous transmitter?
Options:
Acetylcholine
Serotonin
Histamine
Noradrenaline
GABA
Correct Answer: Noradrenaline
Explanation: Tyramine escapes MAO metabolism and promotes release of stored noradrenaline, producing intense vasoconstriction and hypertension.
MCQ 17
Question:
A patient taking an MAO inhibitor is advised to avoid foods that undergo prolonged aging or fermentation. Which property of these foods is responsible for the interaction risk?
Options:
High tyramine content
High acetylcholine content
High dopamine content
High histamine content
High serotonin content
Correct Answer: High tyramine content
Explanation: Aged and fermented foods may contain substantial tyramine, which can precipitate severe hypertension during MAO inhibition.
MCQ 18
Question:
A patient receiving an MAO inhibitor is accidentally given an indirectly acting sympathomimetic. Soon afterward, severe hypertension develops. Which pharmacological interaction best explains the toxicity?
Options:
Reduced adrenergic receptor sensitivity
Enhanced catecholamine accumulation and release
Accelerated catecholamine degradation
Inhibition of vascular α₁ receptors
Suppression of sympathetic neurotransmission
Correct Answer: Enhanced catecholamine accumulation and release
Explanation: MAO inhibition decreases monoamine breakdown, while an indirect sympathomimetic increases catecholamine availability, producing excessive adrenergic stimulation.
MCQ 19
Question:
A patient receives excessive adrenaline and develops severe hypertension with marked peripheral vasoconstriction. Which therapeutic strategy most directly reverses the dominant vascular receptor effect?
Options:
β₂-receptor stimulation
Muscarinic receptor blockade
Carbonic anhydrase inhibition
α-adrenoceptor blockade
D₁-receptor blockade
Correct Answer: α-adrenoceptor blockade
Explanation: Severe vasoconstriction from adrenaline excess is mainly α-mediated; an α antagonist such as phentolamine directly opposes this effect.
MCQ 20
Question:
A patient receiving sympathomimetic therapy develops tremor, palpitations and marked elevation of blood pressure. Which general principle best explains the adverse-effect pattern?
Options:
Loss of receptor responsiveness
Suppression of catecholamine release
Excessive expression of normal adrenergic actions
Predominant parasympathetic activation
Blockade of peripheral adrenergic receptors
Correct Answer: Excessive expression of normal adrenergic actions
Explanation: Sympathomimetic adverse effects are mainly extensions of expected receptor-mediated actions, including cardiac stimulation, tremor and vasoconstriction.