Course Content
Endocrine & Reproductive System Module โ€” 4th Year MBBS

AIM EXAM ARENA

KMU Past Paper Practice

Pituitary and Growth Disorders: Pathology, Clinical Evaluation, Pharmacotherapy and Surgical Management

4th Year MBBS โ€ข 20 A-type Single Best Answer MCQs

MCQ 1

Question:

A researcher is studying hypothalamic control of the anterior pituitary. A small quantity of hypothalamic releasing hormone reaches the pituitary rapidly without first entering the systemic circulation. Which vascular arrangement makes this possible?

Options:

Cavernous sinus circulation
Hypothalamic-hypophyseal portal circulation
Internal carotid arterial circulation
Vertebrobasilar arterial circulation
Superior sagittal sinus circulation
Correct Answer:
Hypothalamic-hypophyseal portal circulation
Explanation:
The portal circulation delivers hypothalamic releasing and inhibitory hormones directly to the anterior pituitary, allowing effective control with very small hormone concentrations.

MCQ 2

Question:

A healthy volunteer has an experimentally induced rise in circulating IGF-1. Which physiological response would be expected through normal feedback regulation of the growth-hormone axis?

Options:

Increased hypothalamic GHRH release
Increased anterior pituitary ACTH release
Increased anterior pituitary prolactin release
Reduced endogenous growth-hormone secretion
Increased anterior pituitary TSH release
Correct Answer:
Reduced endogenous growth-hormone secretion
Explanation:
IGF-1 participates in negative feedback at hypothalamic and pituitary levels, reducing further GH secretion when GH activity is already sufficient.

MCQ 3

Question:

A patient has persistent excessive secretion of a single anterior pituitary hormone associated with a discrete sellar lesion. Which underlying process is the most important cause of this form of hyperpituitarism?

Options:

Functioning pituitary adenoma
Destruction of pituitary tissue
Postpartum pituitary ischemia
Pituitary stalk transection
Previous pituitary radiotherapy
Correct Answer:
Functioning pituitary adenoma
Explanation:
Autonomous hormone production by a functioning anterior pituitary adenoma is the major cause of clinically significant hyperpituitarism.

MCQ 4

Question:

A 56-year-old man has a large pituitary tumor but no recognizable hormone-excess syndrome. Laboratory testing shows reduced function of several anterior pituitary axes. Which mechanism best explains these endocrine findings?

Options:

Excessive hypothalamic releasing hormones
Increased target-organ hormone secretion
Autonomous secretion from multiple cell lines
Excessive peripheral hormone degradation
Compression of residual normal pituitary tissue
Correct Answer:
Compression of residual normal pituitary tissue
Explanation:
A large non-functioning adenoma may present with hypopituitarism because expanding tumor tissue compresses and impairs the remaining normal pituitary gland.

MCQ 5

Question:

During pathological examination of a resected pituitary lesion, the surgeon asks which gross appearance would be most compatible with a typical pituitary adenoma.

Options:

Hard calcified lesion with irregular borders
Diffuse hemorrhagic thickening of the gland
Soft well-circumscribed lesion within the sella
Multicystic lesion filled with mucinous material
Diffuse caseating lesion involving the stalk
Correct Answer:
Soft well-circumscribed lesion within the sella
Explanation:
Pituitary adenomas are commonly soft, relatively well-defined sellar lesions; larger tumors may expand beyond the confines of the sella.

MCQ 6

Question:

A 50-year-old man with longstanding GH excess has loud snoring, witnessed pauses in breathing during sleep and daytime somnolence. Which effect of his endocrine disorder most directly contributes to this complication?

Options:

Reduction in respiratory-center sensitivity
Upper-airway soft-tissue enlargement
Loss of diaphragmatic motor innervation
Reduced pulmonary surfactant production
Chronic constriction of bronchial smooth muscle
Correct Answer:
Upper-airway soft-tissue enlargement
Explanation:
GH and IGF-1 cause soft-tissue overgrowth, including tissues of the upper airway, which predisposes patients with acromegaly to obstructive sleep apnea.

MCQ 7

Question:

A patient with poorly controlled acromegaly develops exertional breathlessness. Echocardiography shows myocardial enlargement with impaired cardiac function. Which complication of chronic GH excess is most likely present?

Options:

Acute viral myocarditis
Rheumatic valvular disease
Restrictive pericarditis
Acromegalic cardiomyopathy
Congenital septal defect
Correct Answer:
Acromegalic cardiomyopathy
Explanation:
Persistent GH and IGF-1 excess can produce myocardial hypertrophy and cardiomyopathy, an important cardiovascular complication of untreated acromegaly.

MCQ 8

Question:

A patient with a GH-secreting pituitary adenoma has persistent disease despite surgery and appropriate medical therapy. Radiotherapy is being considered. Which long-term endocrine complication should be discussed before treatment?

Options:

Development of hypopituitarism
Persistent hyperaldosteronism
Permanent hyperparathyroidism
Progressive catecholamine excess
Development of primary hyperthyroidism
Correct Answer:
Development of hypopituitarism
Explanation:
Pituitary radiotherapy may gradually damage normal hormone-producing tissue, so delayed hypopituitarism is an important long-term complication.

MCQ 9

Question:

A patient with acromegaly is started on immediate-release octreotide while the clinical response is assessed. Which regimen is consistent with an appropriate starting approach described for this drug?

Options:

25 micrograms orally twice daily
50 micrograms intravenously once daily
100 milligrams orally once daily
1 milligram subcutaneously once weekly
50 micrograms subcutaneously three times daily
Correct Answer:
50 micrograms subcutaneously three times daily
Explanation:
Immediate-release octreotide can be initiated at about 50 micrograms subcutaneously three times daily and adjusted according to biochemical and clinical response.

MCQ 10

Question:

A patient with acromegaly responds to short-acting octreotide and is changed to a long-acting formulation for maintenance treatment. Which administration pattern is most appropriate?

Options:

Oral administration every morning
Subcutaneous administration every six hours
Deep intramuscular administration about every four weeks
Intravenous infusion on alternate days
Transdermal administration once weekly
Correct Answer:
Deep intramuscular administration about every four weeks
Explanation:
Long-acting octreotide preparations provide sustained somatostatin-receptor stimulation and are commonly administered by deep intramuscular injection at roughly four-week intervals.

MCQ 11

Question:

A patient treated with octreotide for GH excess develops unexpected fluctuations in blood glucose despite stable diet and activity. Which known pharmacological effect best explains this finding?

Options:

Permanent destruction of pancreatic beta cells
Increased intestinal glucose absorption
Complete blockade of hepatic glycogenolysis
Alteration of normal glucose-regulating hormone secretion
Irreversible stimulation of insulin receptors
Correct Answer:
Alteration of normal glucose-regulating hormone secretion
Explanation:
Somatostatin analogues can alter pancreatic and endocrine hormone secretion, so abnormalities of glucose regulation may occur during octreotide treatment.

MCQ 12

Question:

A child with confirmed GH deficiency requires replacement therapy. The parents ask why recombinant growth hormone cannot simply be given as a tablet. Which explanation is most appropriate?

Options:

It undergoes complete first-pass renal elimination
It is a peptide that is degraded in the gastrointestinal tract
It causes immediate gastric mucosal ulceration
It requires activation by skeletal muscle enzymes
It becomes inactive only after hepatic conjugation
Correct Answer:
It is a peptide that is degraded in the gastrointestinal tract
Explanation:
Growth hormone is a peptide and would be digested in the gastrointestinal tract, so effective replacement requires parenteral administration, commonly subcutaneous injection.

MCQ 13

Question:

A 13-year-old boy receiving recombinant GH develops a new limp and pain around the hip and knee. Examination shows reduced internal rotation of the affected hip. Which treatment-associated complication should be considered?

Options:

Developmental dysplasia of the hip
Septic arthritis of the hip
Legg-Calvรฉ-Perthes disease
Juvenile inflammatory arthritis
Slipped upper femoral epiphysis
Correct Answer:
Slipped upper femoral epiphysis
Explanation:
Slipped upper femoral epiphysis is an important musculoskeletal adverse effect to consider in a growing child receiving GH who develops hip or referred knee pain.

MCQ 14

Question:

A patient with acromegaly requires additional medical treatment. The endocrinologist explains that one drug more commonly associated with prolactinoma can also reduce GH secretion in selected patients. Which drug is being described?

Options:

Bromocriptine
Somatropin
Levothyroxine
Hydrocortisone
Desmopressin
Correct Answer:
Bromocriptine
Explanation:
Bromocriptine is primarily a dopamine agonist used for hyperprolactinemia, but it can also suppress GH secretion in selected patients with acromegaly.

MCQ 15

Question:

A woman with previous destructive pituitary disease later delivers a healthy infant but is unable to produce breast milk despite normal breast development and appropriate infant suckling. Deficiency of which pituitary hormone best explains this finding?

Options:

Growth hormone
Thyroid-stimulating hormone
Prolactin
Adrenocorticotropic hormone
Follicle-stimulating hormone
Correct Answer:
Prolactin
Explanation:
Prolactin from anterior pituitary lactotrophs is required for milk production; loss of prolactin secretion can therefore cause failure of lactation.

MCQ 16

Question:

A patient with pituitary failure develops secondary adrenal insufficiency. He has fatigue, weakness and low cortisol but no generalized skin hyperpigmentation. Which feature of pituitary disease explains the absence of pigmentation?

Options:

Persistently elevated serum cortisol
Reduced circulating ACTH concentration
Excessive adrenal androgen secretion
Increased melanocyte resistance to cortisol
Increased secretion of thyroid-stimulating hormone
Correct Answer:
Reduced circulating ACTH concentration
Explanation:
In secondary adrenal insufficiency ACTH is deficient, so the melanocortin-related stimulation responsible for hyperpigmentation in primary adrenal failure is absent.

MCQ 17

Question:

A woman suffers severe postpartum hemorrhage and later develops multiple anterior pituitary hormone deficiencies. Which normal pregnancy-related pituitary change increases vulnerability to ischemic injury in this setting?

Options:

Atrophy of anterior pituitary endocrine cells
Replacement of the gland by adipose tissue
Marked shrinkage of the pituitary vascular bed
Degeneration of hypothalamic neurosecretory axons
Enlargement of the anterior pituitary from lactotroph expansion
Correct Answer:
Enlargement of the anterior pituitary from lactotroph expansion
Explanation:
Pregnancy enlarges the anterior pituitary, particularly through lactotroph expansion, increasing its metabolic requirements and vulnerability to severe postpartum hypoperfusion.

MCQ 18

Question:

An 8-year-old child is referred for short stature. Examination shows that the limbs are disproportionately short in relation to the trunk. Which category of growth disorder should be considered most strongly?

Options:

Isolated constitutional growth delay
Familial short stature alone
Isolated growth-hormone deficiency
Underlying skeletal disorder
Physiological variation in pubertal timing
Correct Answer:
Underlying skeletal disorder
Explanation:
Disproportionate short stature suggests abnormal skeletal growth and should prompt assessment for a skeletal disorder rather than assuming an isolated endocrine cause.

MCQ 19

Question:

A 9-year-old child has poor linear growth and biochemical evidence suggesting a central growth-hormone deficiency. Additional findings raise concern for a structural hypothalamic-pituitary lesion. Which investigation best evaluates this possibility?

Options:

Pituitary magnetic resonance imaging
Abdominal ultrasonography
Plain radiography of the chest
Thyroid radionuclide scanning
Renal Doppler ultrasonography
Correct Answer:
Pituitary magnetic resonance imaging
Explanation:
Pituitary MRI provides anatomical assessment of the hypothalamic-pituitary region when a structural central cause of growth-hormone deficiency is suspected.

MCQ 20

Question:

A large pituitary macroadenoma extends beyond the sella, and complete removal would risk damage to important adjacent structures. Which surgical objective is most appropriate in this situation?

Options:

Remove the entire normal pituitary with the tumor
Avoid surgery until complete tumor excision is possible
Debulk the tumor and decompress critical structures safely
Remove the posterior pituitary before tumor resection
Resect surrounding skull-base structures routinely
Correct Answer:
Debulk the tumor and decompress critical structures safely
Explanation:
For an invasive macroadenoma, safe decompression and tumor debulking may be more appropriate than hazardous complete excision, while preserving normal pituitary and nearby structures.
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