AIM Exam Arena
4th Year MBBS
KMU Style
KMU PAST PAPER PRACTICE
Topic 19 β Sexually Transmitted Infections and Vaginal Discharge
20 A-type Single Best Answer MCQs focused on applied clinical reasoning, pathology, investigation, primary care and STI prevention.
MCQ 1
Question:
A 25-year-old woman presents with mild dysuria and intermenstrual spotting. Speculum examination shows mucopurulent cervical secretion with little vaginal inflammation. Testing for gonorrhea is negative. Which diagnosis should now be considered most strongly?
Options:
Vulvovaginal candidiasis
Chlamydial cervicitis
Bacterial vaginosis
Primary syphilis
Genital herpes
Correct Answer: Chlamydial cervicitis
Explanation: Chlamydia can produce a cervicitis pattern similar to gonorrhea, with mucopurulent cervical secretion, dysuria and abnormal bleeding.
MCQ 2
Question:
A woman with gonococcal cervicitis has thick mucopurulent secretion from the cervical os. Which inflammatory response most directly accounts for the purulent appearance?
Options:
Plasma-cell infiltration
Eosinophilic infiltration
Granulomatous inflammation
Acute neutrophilic inflammation
Lymphocytic epithelial dysplasia
Correct Answer: Acute neutrophilic inflammation
Explanation: Gonococcal mucosal infection produces an acute neutrophilic inflammatory response, accounting for mucopurulent cervical discharge.
MCQ 3
Question:
A patient has completed treatment for syphilis. The clinician wants to assess change in disease activity during follow-up. Which investigation is most useful for this purpose?
Options:
Nontreponemal serological testing
Vaginal fungal microscopy
Cervical cytology
Pelvic ultrasonography
Gonococcal culture
Correct Answer: Nontreponemal serological testing
Explanation: Nontreponemal tests are useful not only in detection but also for monitoring changes in syphilitic disease activity after treatment.
MCQ 4
Question:
A woman presents soon after developing a suspicious early syphilitic genital lesion. Direct demonstration of the causative organism is planned where appropriate facilities are available. Which specimen is most relevant?
Options:
Midstream urine
Vaginal wall scraping
Cervical cytology sample
Peripheral blood smear
Material from the active genital lesion
Correct Answer: Material from the active genital lesion
Explanation: Early syphilitic lesions contain organisms and can provide suitable material for direct detection where appropriate diagnostic facilities exist.
MCQ 5
Question:
A woman with positive syphilis serology develops neurological symptoms but has no current genital ulcer or skin rash. Which interpretation is most appropriate?
Options:
Syphilis is excluded without a genital lesion
Neurological symptoms indicate candidiasis
Neurological involvement remains compatible with syphilis
Serological positivity excludes systemic disease
Only primary disease can affect other organs
Correct Answer: Neurological involvement remains compatible with syphilis
Explanation: Syphilis is a systemic infection, and neurological disease may occur even when obvious genital or cutaneous lesions are absent.
MCQ 6
Question:
During an integrated STI teaching session, students classify infections according to the type of causative organism. Which pairing is correct?
Options:
Syphilis β viral infection
Trichomoniasis β protozoal infection
Gonorrhea β fungal infection
Genital herpes β bacterial infection
HPV infection β protozoal infection
Correct Answer: Trichomoniasis β protozoal infection
Explanation: Trichomonas vaginalis is a protozoan; gonorrhea and syphilis are bacterial, while herpes and HPV are viral.
MCQ 7
Question:
A 30-year-old woman develops marked vulval itching and soreness shortly after completing a prolonged course of antibiotics. She reports no new sexual exposure. Which factor most likely predisposed to her current problem?
Options:
Hematogenous treponemal spread
Persistent oncogenic HPV infection
Ascending gonococcal infection
Latent herpes reactivation
Disturbance of normal vaginal microbial balance
Correct Answer: Disturbance of normal vaginal microbial balance
Explanation: Antibiotic exposure may disturb normal vaginal flora and allow Candida overgrowth, producing inflammatory vulvovaginal symptoms.
MCQ 8
Question:
A primary-care doctor is differentiating common causes of vaginal discharge. In addition to examination and microscopy, which simple vaginal parameter may contribute to distinguishing the causes?
Options:
Vaginal acidity assessment
Serum creatinine measurement
Fasting lipid profile
Liver enzyme measurement
Serum electrolyte testing
Correct Answer: Vaginal acidity assessment
Explanation: Vaginal acidity can contribute to differentiating common causes of pathological discharge when interpreted with the clinical pattern and other tests.
MCQ 9
Question:
A woman has recurrent inflammatory vaginal discharge, but the clinical findings are insufficient to confidently identify the cause. Trichomoniasis remains suspected. Which approach best improves etiological confirmation where available?
Options:
Repeat cervical cytology
Perform pelvic radiography
Measure serum antibodies to HPV
Use specific laboratory testing for Trichomonas
Perform routine endometrial biopsy
Correct Answer: Use specific laboratory testing for Trichomonas
Explanation: Targeted laboratory testing, including nucleic acid testing where available, can confirm trichomoniasis when clinical findings alone are insufficient.
MCQ 10
Question:
A 27-year-old woman presents with abnormal genital discharge. The clinician needs to determine whether the secretion originates mainly from the vagina or cervix and also wishes to inspect for cervical friability. Which examination is most useful?
Options:
Abdominal percussion
Rectal examination
Speculum examination
Neurological examination
Breast examination
Correct Answer: Speculum examination
Explanation: Speculum examination allows direct assessment of vaginal discharge and visualization of cervical secretion, inflammation, friability or lesions.
MCQ 11
Question:
A woman with genital discharge also reports lower abdominal pain. The clinician is concerned that infection may have spread beyond the cervix. Which examination component most directly assesses for upper genital tract involvement?
Options:
Inspection of the palms
Examination of the oral mucosa
Testing of deep tendon reflexes
Inspection of the external genitalia alone
Bimanual assessment for pelvic tenderness
Correct Answer: Bimanual assessment for pelvic tenderness
Explanation: Bimanual examination assesses cervical-motion, uterine and adnexal tenderness, which may support suspicion of ascending pelvic infection.
MCQ 12
Question:
Two women have HPV infection. One develops external genital warts, while the other develops cervical epithelial dysplasia. Which concept best explains this difference?
Options:
The infections involve different bacterial species
Different HPV types have different biological effects
Genital warts result from gonococcal coinfection
Cervical dysplasia is caused by Candida overgrowth
All HPV infections produce identical epithelial changes
Correct Answer: Different HPV types have different biological effects
Explanation: Low-risk HPV types are associated mainly with genital warts, whereas persistent oncogenic types are linked with cervical precancer.
MCQ 13
Question:
A woman presents early in an episode of painful genital vesicles and ulcers. The clinician wishes to confirm herpes simplex infection directly. Which specimen is most appropriate?
Options:
Peripheral blood smear
Routine stool specimen
Endometrial biopsy
Material obtained from the genital lesion
Sputum sample
Correct Answer: Material obtained from the genital lesion
Explanation: Direct testing of material obtained from an active genital herpes lesion can confirm HSV infection.
MCQ 14
Question:
A community health team wants to improve STI prevention without creating a separate specialist service. Which approach best reflects integration into reproductive-health care?
Options:
Use routine reproductive-health visits for counseling and appropriate testing
Limit STI discussion to hospitalized patients
Treat only patients who develop complications
Avoid sexual-health counseling in family-planning clinics
Separate STI prevention from antenatal services
Correct Answer: Use routine reproductive-health visits for counseling and appropriate testing
Explanation: Family-planning, antenatal and primary-care visits provide practical opportunities for STI counseling, risk assessment, testing and prevention.
MCQ 15
Question:
A 24-year-old woman attending a reproductive-health clinic has no genital symptoms. She reports a previous STI and a recent new sexual partner. Which interpretation is most appropriate?
Options:
Absence of discharge excludes current infection
Previous treatment eliminates future risk
Her history increases the likelihood of an asymptomatic STI
Testing is useful only when pelvic pain develops
Risk assessment is unnecessary without visible lesions
Correct Answer: Her history increases the likelihood of an asymptomatic STI
Explanation: Previous STI and new sexual exposure are relevant risk factors, and important cervical infections may remain asymptomatic.
MCQ 16
Question:
A woman and her partner have both received appropriate treatment for a confirmed sexually transmitted infection. Which counseling point most directly reduces immediate onward transmission?
Options:
Increase vaginal cleansing after intercourse
Stop follow-up once symptoms improve
Avoid further testing for associated infections
Avoid sexual exposure until treatment requirements are completed
Use empirical antifungal medication routinely
Correct Answer: Avoid sexual exposure until treatment requirements are completed
Explanation: Avoiding further sexual exposure until the patient and relevant partner have completed treatment requirements helps interrupt transmission.
MCQ 17
Question:
A primary-care facility has reliable microbiological testing available for women with vaginal discharge. Compared with treatment based only on a clinical syndrome, what is the main advantage of identifying the specific cause?
Options:
It removes the need for examination
It allows more precise cause-directed treatment
It guarantees that recurrence will not occur
It eliminates the need for partner assessment
It makes sexual history unnecessary
Correct Answer: It allows more precise cause-directed treatment
Explanation: Etiological diagnosis can distinguish conditions with similar symptoms and allows treatment to be directed at the actual cause.
MCQ 18
Question:
A woman with abnormal vaginal discharge has completed appropriate initial management but continues to have symptoms. No definite cause has been established. Which primary-care principle is most appropriate?
Options:
Repeat the same empirical treatment indefinitely
Stop further evaluation because serious disease is impossible
Assume that every persistent discharge is physiological
Treat all sexual partners with antifungal medication
Reassess the diagnosis and arrange further evaluation or referral
Correct Answer: Reassess the diagnosis and arrange further evaluation or referral
Explanation: Persistent symptoms despite appropriate initial care require reconsideration of the diagnosis and further assessment rather than repeated blind treatment.
MCQ 19
Question:
During counseling, a student states that every common cause of abnormal vaginal discharge should be regarded as a sexually transmitted infection. Which pair best demonstrates why this statement is incorrect?
Options:
Bacterial vaginosis and vulvovaginal candidiasis
Gonorrhea and chlamydial infection
Trichomoniasis and gonorrhea
Syphilis and genital herpes
HPV infection and chlamydial infection
Correct Answer: Bacterial vaginosis and vulvovaginal candidiasis
Explanation: Both conditions commonly cause abnormal discharge but are not classified as classical sexually transmitted infections.
MCQ 20
Question:
A medical student is counseling a patient about transmission of infections that are commonly sexually transmitted. Which statement best reflects the broader transmission pattern described for this group?
Options:
Transmission is restricted to genital intercourse
Every infection requires visible genital lesions for transmission
Some infections can also spread vertically or through infected blood
Asymptomatic individuals cannot transmit infection
Transmission stops when local symptoms disappear
Correct Answer: Some infections can also spread vertically or through infected blood
Explanation: Sexual contact is the main route for STIs, but some infections may also be transmitted from mother to child or through infected blood.