AIM EXAM ARENA
KMU Past Paper Practice
Topic 12 β Adrenal and Neuroendocrine Tumors: Pheochromocytoma, MEN and GEP-NETs
4th Year MBBS β’ 20 A-Type Single Best Answer MCQs β’ KMU-style clinical reasoning practice
MCQ 1
Question:
A 48-year-old man is found to have an adrenal cortical mass during evaluation of hypertension and hypokalemia. He has no episodic palpitations or sweating. Which tumor-related functional abnormality best explains his presentation?
Options:
Excess catecholamine production
Excess serotonin production
Excess mineralocorticoid production
Excess insulin production
Excess gastrin production
Correct Answer: Excess mineralocorticoid production
Explanation: A functional adrenal cortical tumor may secrete aldosterone, producing hypertension and potassium loss without the adrenergic attacks typical of pheochromocytoma.
MCQ 2
Question:
A 61-year-old woman has a large nonfunctioning adrenal cortical tumor and presents with persistent flank discomfort rather than an endocrine syndrome. Which feature best accounts for this mode of presentation?
Options:
Progressive local mass effect
Intermittent insulin secretion
Systemic serotonin release
Excess pituitary stimulation
Catecholamine-induced vasospasm
Correct Answer: Progressive local mass effect
Explanation: A nonfunctioning adrenal tumor lacks an early hormone-excess syndrome and may therefore become large enough to cause local pain or pressure symptoms before detection.
MCQ 3
Question:
A patient with a catecholamine-secreting adrenal tumor has repeated episodes of hyperglycemia despite no previous history of diabetes. Which physiological effect most directly contributes to the rise in glucose?
Options:
Reduced hepatic glucose release
Increased peripheral glucose storage
Suppressed intestinal glucose absorption
Increased hepatic glucose production
Reduced glucagon action
Correct Answer: Increased hepatic glucose production
Explanation: Catecholamines promote glycogenolysis and hepatic glucose output and also interfere with normal insulin-mediated glucose control, producing hyperglycemia.
MCQ 4
Question:
A 43-year-old man with recurrent catecholamine surges develops acute breathlessness and reduced left ventricular systolic function. Coronary angiography does not show an obstructive lesion. Which complication best explains the cardiac dysfunction?
Options:
Carcinoid valvular disease
Catecholamine-related cardiomyopathy
Mineralocorticoid myocarditis
Insulin-induced myocardial edema
Gastrin-associated cardiomyopathy
Correct Answer: Catecholamine-related cardiomyopathy
Explanation: Prolonged or intense catecholamine exposure can directly impair myocardial function and produce acute heart failure even without obstructive coronary disease.
MCQ 5
Question:
Two patients have the same type of adrenal medullary tumor. One has persistent hypertension, while the other has abrupt episodic attacks separated by symptom-free intervals. Which factor best explains this difference?
Options:
Different patterns of cortisol release
Different rates of insulin clearance
Different degrees of gastric acidity
Different levels of serotonin metabolism
Different patterns of catecholamine release
Correct Answer: Different patterns of catecholamine release
Explanation: Continuous catecholamine secretion can produce sustained hypertension, whereas intermittent release produces paroxysmal adrenergic attacks.
MCQ 6
Question:
Histology of an adrenal medullary neoplasm shows nests of polygonal neuroendocrine cells surrounded by a delicate vascular network and supporting cells. From which normal cell type did the neoplastic cells most likely arise?
Options:
Zona glomerulosa cells
Chromaffin cells
Pancreatic beta cells
Thyroid follicular cells
Pituitary corticotrophs
Correct Answer: Chromaffin cells
Explanation: Pheochromocytoma arises from adrenal medullary chromaffin cells, which are specialized neuroendocrine cells responsible for catecholamine production.
MCQ 7
Question:
A family has several members with medullary thyroid carcinoma and pheochromocytoma. Genetic testing demonstrates an abnormality affecting RET. Which type of molecular alteration best fits this syndrome?
Options:
Loss of a mitochondrial enzyme only
Deletion of an insulin gene
Inactivation of a serotonin receptor
Activation of a proto-oncogene
Suppression of a pituitary hormone gene
Correct Answer: Activation of a proto-oncogene
Explanation: MEN2 syndromes result from activating germline abnormalities of the RET proto-oncogene, promoting abnormal endocrine-cell proliferation.
MCQ 8
Question:
A woman with a confirmed hereditary MEN syndrome has undergone treatment of the endocrine tumor that caused her initial symptoms. She is currently well. Which long-term principle remains most appropriate?
Options:
Surveillance for additional syndrome-associated tumors
No further endocrine assessment after successful surgery
Routine empirical chemotherapy for all endocrine organs
Long-term corticosteroid therapy for gene suppression
Restriction of assessment to the originally affected gland
Correct Answer: Surveillance for additional syndrome-associated tumors
Explanation: MEN is a germline tumor-predisposition syndrome, so successful treatment of one lesion does not remove the risk of developing other characteristic endocrine tumors.
MCQ 9
Question:
A thyroid specimen from a patient belonging to a MEN2 family shows multifocal medullary thyroid carcinoma arising in a background of proliferation of parafollicular cells. Which pathological change best represents this inherited predisposition?
Options:
Follicular-cell atrophy
Diffuse colloid accumulation
C-cell hyperplasia
Lymphocytic thyroiditis
Squamous metaplasia
Correct Answer: C-cell hyperplasia
Explanation: Hereditary MEN2-associated medullary thyroid carcinoma commonly develops in a background of parafollicular C-cell hyperplasia and may be multifocal.
MCQ 10
Question:
A pancreatic mass is composed of uniform cells arranged in nests and trabeculae. The pathologist wants to confirm neuroendocrine differentiation. Which pair of markers would provide the most useful support?
Options:
ACTH and cortisol
Calcitonin and thyroglobulin
Insulin and glucagon
Cytokeratin and desmin
Synaptophysin and chromogranin
Correct Answer: Synaptophysin and chromogranin
Explanation: Synaptophysin and chromogranin are widely used markers of neuroendocrine differentiation and support the diagnosis of a pancreatic neuroendocrine tumor.
MCQ 11
Question:
A patient has recurrent episodes strongly suggestive of a small functional pancreatic neuroendocrine tumor. Biochemical testing supports the diagnosis, but CT does not identify a definite lesion. Which additional localization method is most appropriate?
Options:
Endoscopic ultrasonography
Plain abdominal radiography
Routine echocardiography
Bone densitometry
Electroencephalography
Correct Answer: Endoscopic ultrasonography
Explanation: Endoscopic ultrasonography can provide focused high-resolution localization of small pancreatic lesions not clearly seen on routine cross-sectional imaging.
MCQ 12
Question:
A clinician suspects a functional GEP-NET in a patient with a characteristic endocrine syndrome. Which investigation strategy best follows the diagnostic principles for these tumors?
Options:
Measure every available endocrine marker simultaneously
Perform surgery before biochemical assessment
Rely on a general neuroendocrine marker alone
Select hormone testing according to the clinical syndrome
Delay investigation until metastatic symptoms occur
Correct Answer: Select hormone testing according to the clinical syndrome
Explanation: Functional GEP-NET investigation should be syndrome-directed; the suspected hormone is assessed first rather than ordering a nonspecific panel indiscriminately.
MCQ 13
Question:
A patient with an insulin-secreting pancreatic tumor develops confusion, blurred vision and eventually a seizure during a prolonged fast. Which mechanism best explains these neurological manifestations?
Options:
Excessive sympathetic vasoconstriction
Inadequate glucose delivery to the brain
Excessive serotonin reaching the brain
Acute cortisol-mediated cerebral edema
Aldosterone-induced neuronal depolarization
Correct Answer: Inadequate glucose delivery to the brain
Explanation: Confusion, visual disturbance and seizures are neuroglycopenic manifestations caused by insufficient glucose supply to cerebral tissue during severe hypoglycemia.
MCQ 14
Question:
A patient with a functional pancreatic NET develops glucose intolerance, fatty stools and gallstones. Which physiological action of the secreted hormone best links these manifestations?
Options:
Stimulation of insulin and pancreatic secretion
Stimulation of gastric acid and bile secretion
Selective activation of adrenergic receptors
Increased hepatic catecholamine synthesis
Inhibition of several pancreatic and gastrointestinal hormones
Correct Answer: Inhibition of several pancreatic and gastrointestinal hormones
Explanation: Excess somatostatin suppresses insulin and gastrointestinal-pancreatic functions, producing diabetes, steatorrhea and impaired gallbladder function with gallstones.
MCQ 15
Question:
A 50-year-old man with a secretory pancreatic NET has persistent watery diarrhea and hypokalemia. Gastric assessment also shows reduced acid secretion. Which mediator best accounts for this combination?
Options:
Gastrin
Insulin
Vasoactive intestinal peptide
Glucagon
Catecholamine
Correct Answer: Vasoactive intestinal peptide
Explanation: Excess VIP promotes intestinal water and electrolyte secretion while reducing gastric acid secretion, producing the characteristic secretory syndrome.
MCQ 16
Question:
A patient with metastatic intestinal neuroendocrine disease has recurrent flushing and diarrhea. During some attacks he also develops wheezing without evidence of infection or heart failure. Which manifestation of the secretory syndrome best explains the wheeze?
Options:
Pulmonary fibrosis
Bronchospasm
Pleural effusion
Pulmonary embolism
Alveolar hemorrhage
Correct Answer: Bronchospasm
Explanation: Circulating vasoactive mediators in carcinoid syndrome may produce bronchial smooth-muscle constriction, causing episodic wheezing.
MCQ 17
Question:
A patient with suspected GEP-NET has a mildly elevated general neuroendocrine marker but no clear hormone syndrome. Which interpretation is most appropriate?
Options:
The marker should support, not replace, imaging and pathological assessment
The marker alone proves the exact tumor site
The marker alone determines tumor grade
The marker excludes nonfunctional disease
The marker removes the need for tissue diagnosis
Correct Answer: The marker should support, not replace, imaging and pathological assessment
Explanation: General neuroendocrine markers can support suspicion but do not independently establish tumor location, grade or definitive diagnosis.
MCQ 18
Question:
A patient with a well-differentiated metastatic GEP-NET has strong somatostatin-receptor expression on functional imaging. Hormone-related symptoms are controlled, but tumor-directed therapy is required. Which treatment principle specifically uses the demonstrated receptor expression?
Options:
Long-term mineralocorticoid replacement
Empirical antibacterial therapy
Routine external radiotherapy to every lesion
High-dose corticosteroid suppression
Peptide-receptor radionuclide therapy
Correct Answer: Peptide-receptor radionuclide therapy
Explanation: Receptor-positive well-differentiated NETs may be treated with radionuclide-linked peptides that target somatostatin receptors on tumor cells.
MCQ 19
Question:
A patient with a small insulin-secreting pancreatic tumor has troublesome symptoms despite the lesion being only a few centimeters in size. Which principle best explains why a relatively small functional NET can cause prominent disease?
Options:
Small tumors produce more fibrosis than large tumors
Small tumors metastasize before hormone secretion begins
Hormone secretion can produce systemic effects independent of tumor size
Pancreatic tumors obstruct the bowel at an early stage
All functional tumors grow more rapidly than nonfunctional tumors
Correct Answer: Hormone secretion can produce systemic effects independent of tumor size
Explanation: Functional NETs may become clinically apparent while still small because excessive hormone secretion produces symptoms before significant mass effect develops.
MCQ 20
Question:
A patient with a gastrin-secreting neuroendocrine tumor continues to have severe acid-related symptoms while localization and definitive tumor treatment are being arranged. Which immediate therapeutic principle most directly reduces the morbidity caused by the hormone excess?
Options:
Adrenergic blockade
Glucocorticoid replacement
Strong gastric-acid suppression
Mineralocorticoid antagonism
Thyroid-hormone suppression
Correct Answer: Strong gastric-acid suppression
Explanation: Gastrinoma morbidity is driven largely by excessive gastric acid secretion, so potent acid suppression is important while definitive tumor management is planned.
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