AIM • KMU EXAM PRACTICE
KMU Past Paper Practice
Diabetes Mellitus: Pathogenesis, Diagnosis, Chronic Management and Population Prevention
4th Year MBBS • 20 A-type Single Best Answer MCQs
MCQ 1
Question:
A 52-year-old asymptomatic man undergoes routine health assessment. His HbA1c is 6.7%, with no previous evidence of hyperglycaemia. Which approach is most appropriate before establishing the diagnosis?
Options:
Begin insulin therapy without further testing
Use urine glucose as the confirmatory test
Repeat the abnormal test or confirm with another accepted test
Perform pancreatic imaging to estimate β-cell mass
Measure pancreatic autoantibodies before confirming hyperglycaemia
Correct Answer: Repeat the abnormal test or confirm with another accepted test
Explanation: In an asymptomatic patient without unequivocal hyperglycaemia, an abnormal diagnostic result should generally be confirmed by repeat or alternative accepted testing.
MCQ 2
Question:
A 44-year-old woman with a strong family history of diabetes undergoes a 75-g oral glucose tolerance test. Her fasting plasma glucose is 112 mg/dL and the 2-hour value is 208 mg/dL. How should the result be interpreted?
Options:
Normal glucose tolerance
Isolated fasting hyperglycaemia
Stress-related transient hyperglycaemia
Renal glycosuria without diabetes
Diabetes mellitus based on the 2-hour value
Correct Answer: Diabetes mellitus based on the 2-hour value
Explanation: A 2-hour plasma glucose of ≥200 mg/dL during a 75-g OGTT meets the diagnostic criterion for diabetes even when the fasting value is below the diabetic threshold.
MCQ 3
Question:
A pregnant woman with no known pre-existing diabetes is found to have hyperglycaemia during pregnancy. The abnormalities do not indicate clearly established diabetes before pregnancy. Which category best describes her condition?
Options:
Type 1 diabetes mellitus
Gestational diabetes mellitus
Type 2 diabetes mellitus
Other specific genetic diabetes
Diabetes secondary to pancreatic disease
Correct Answer: Gestational diabetes mellitus
Explanation: Gestational diabetes refers to hyperglycaemia first recognized during pregnancy when clearly established pre-existing diabetes is not present.
MCQ 4
Question:
A 46-year-old man with marked visceral obesity has elevated fasting insulin but only mildly raised blood glucose. Which metabolic change most directly links excess adipose tissue with impaired insulin action?
Options:
Reduced hepatic glucose output with enhanced muscle uptake
Increased adipokine activity with improved receptor signalling
Suppressed lipolysis with reduced free fatty acid release
Free fatty acids and inflammatory signals impair insulin action
Loss of glucagon secretion reduces hepatic glycogen breakdown
Correct Answer: Free fatty acids and inflammatory signals impair insulin action
Explanation: Visceral adiposity increases free fatty acids and inflammatory signalling, which interfere with insulin signalling in liver, muscle and adipose tissue.
MCQ 5
Question:
A patient with long-standing diabetes develops symmetrical numbness and reduced vibration sense in both feet. Which pathological process best explains this complication?
Options:
Metabolic nerve injury combined with small-vessel damage
Autoimmune destruction of peripheral motor neurons
Acute ketone accumulation within peripheral nerves
Increased arterial flow causing nerve compression
Excess insulin causing segmental nerve demyelination
Correct Answer: Metabolic nerve injury combined with small-vessel damage
Explanation: Diabetic neuropathy reflects chronic metabolic injury together with damage to the small vessels supplying peripheral nerves.
MCQ 6
Question:
A 59-year-old man with diabetes, hypertension and dyslipidaemia develops an acute myocardial infarction. Which process most strongly links diabetes with this macrovascular complication?
Options:
Isolated glomerular basement-membrane thickening
Acute osmotic diuresis causing coronary obstruction
Accelerated atherosclerosis from endothelial dysfunction and clustered risk factors
Direct deposition of insulin within coronary arteries
Recurrent ketonaemia causing coronary vasospasm
Correct Answer: Accelerated atherosclerosis from endothelial dysfunction and clustered risk factors
Explanation: Chronic hyperglycaemia promotes endothelial dysfunction and accelerates atherosclerosis, especially when hypertension and dyslipidaemia coexist.
MCQ 7
Question:
A patient using subcutaneous insulin notices a painless thickened fatty swelling at a frequently used injection site. Glucose control has also become less predictable. Which behaviour most likely caused this problem?
Options:
Changing the injection site at every dose
Taking insulin immediately before a meal
Using a long-acting analogue for basal coverage
Combining basal insulin with mealtime insulin
Repeated injection into the same subcutaneous area
Correct Answer: Repeated injection into the same subcutaneous area
Explanation: Repeated insulin injection at one site can produce lipohypertrophy, which may also make subsequent insulin absorption less predictable.
MCQ 8
Question:
NPH insulin provides a longer duration of action than regular insulin after subcutaneous injection. Which pharmacokinetic feature is primarily responsible?
Options:
Binding irreversibly to insulin receptors
Protamine delays absorption from subcutaneous tissue
Rapid hepatic conversion to an active metabolite
Reduced affinity for circulating insulin antibodies
Preferential elimination through the gastrointestinal tract
Correct Answer: Protamine delays absorption from subcutaneous tissue
Explanation: NPH insulin contains protamine, which slows release and absorption of insulin from the subcutaneous depot and prolongs its action.
MCQ 9
Question:
A patient requires sustained basal insulin coverage with minimal rapid peaks. Which property of long-acting insulin analogues best produces this clinical profile?
Options:
Immediate absorption after subcutaneous administration
Rapid metabolism into shorter-acting peptides
Preferential stimulation of hepatic insulin receptors
Delayed absorption or prolonged persistence producing a flatter effect
Direct inhibition of glucagon throughout the day
Correct Answer: Delayed absorption or prolonged persistence producing a flatter effect
Explanation: Molecular modifications in long-acting analogues delay absorption or prolong persistence, creating sustained basal activity with a relatively flat profile.
MCQ 10
Question:
After insulin binds to its receptor on skeletal muscle, which intracellular response most directly facilitates increased glucose uptake?
Options:
Tyrosine-kinase signalling promotes GLUT4 movement to the membrane
G-protein signalling opens β-cell potassium channels
Nuclear receptor activation increases intestinal glucose uptake
DPP-4 inhibition directly activates skeletal-muscle transporters
α-Glucosidase activation increases cellular glucose entry
Correct Answer: Tyrosine-kinase signalling promotes GLUT4 movement to the membrane
Explanation: The insulin receptor has intrinsic tyrosine-kinase activity; its signalling promotes GLUT4 translocation in skeletal muscle and adipose tissue.
MCQ 11
Question:
A patient receiving insulin becomes unconscious from severe hypoglycaemia and cannot safely take oral carbohydrate. Glucagon is administered as rescue therapy. Which effect explains its usefulness?
Options:
It increases peripheral glucose uptake
It suppresses hepatic glycogen breakdown
It stimulates pancreatic insulin release
It slows intestinal carbohydrate absorption
It increases hepatic glucose output
Correct Answer: It increases hepatic glucose output
Explanation: Glucagon is a counter-regulatory hormone that raises blood glucose by increasing hepatic glucose production during severe hypoglycaemia.
MCQ 12
Question:
A clinician classifies glucose-lowering therapy according to its principal physiological target. Which drug class lowers plasma glucose mainly by increasing urinary glucose excretion?
Options:
Sulfonylureas
Thiazolidinediones
Sodium-glucose cotransporter-2 inhibitors
DPP-4 inhibitors
α-Glucosidase inhibitors
Correct Answer: Sodium-glucose cotransporter-2 inhibitors
Explanation: SGLT2 inhibitors lower glucose through enhanced urinary glucose excretion rather than direct stimulation of pancreatic insulin release.
MCQ 13
Question:
During a pharmacology discussion, students are asked to identify two glucose-lowering agents classified as euglycaemic because they have little tendency to cause hypoglycaemia when used alone. Which pair is most appropriate?
Options:
Metformin and sitagliptin
Glibenclamide and repaglinide
Regular insulin and metformin
Repaglinide and pioglitazone
Gliclazide and acarbose
Correct Answer: Metformin and sitagliptin
Explanation: Metformin and sitagliptin lower elevated glucose without directly forcing glucose-independent insulin secretion, so hypoglycaemia is uncommon when they are used alone.
MCQ 14
Question:
A patient receiving mealtime insulin is started on pramlintide to improve postprandial control. Which adverse-effect pattern should be anticipated during treatment?
Options:
Fluid retention with progressive ankle oedema
Flatulence with carbohydrate-related diarrhoea
Weight gain with prolonged insulin secretion
Nausea with greater hypoglycaemia risk when combined with insulin
Lactic acidosis with marked vitamin deficiency
Correct Answer: Nausea with greater hypoglycaemia risk when combined with insulin
Explanation: Nausea is common with pramlintide, and clinically important hypoglycaemia can occur because the drug is used as an adjunct to insulin.
MCQ 15
Question:
A patient with type 2 diabetes requires an oral incretin-based drug that is generally weight neutral and has a low risk of hypoglycaemia when used alone. Which agent best fits these requirements?
Options:
Exenatide
Sitagliptin
Repaglinide
Pioglitazone
Acarbose
Correct Answer: Sitagliptin
Explanation: Sitagliptin is an oral DPP-4 inhibitor that enhances endogenous incretin action, is generally weight neutral and has a low hypoglycaemia risk when used alone.
MCQ 16
Question:
A 20-year-old man is diagnosed with type 1 diabetes after presenting with weight loss, polyuria and marked hyperglycaemia. He is clinically stable after initial assessment. Which pharmacological principle is essential for his long-term treatment?
Options:
Metformin monotherapy to suppress hepatic glucose output
Sulfonylurea therapy to stimulate residual β-cell secretion
Pioglitazone therapy to increase peripheral insulin sensitivity
Acarbose therapy to reduce intestinal glucose absorption
Basal and mealtime insulin replacement
Correct Answer: Basal and mealtime insulin replacement
Explanation: Type 1 diabetes produces severe endogenous insulin deficiency, so physiological insulin replacement is the essential pharmacological treatment.
MCQ 17
Question:
A community physician is identifying adults who should receive closer assessment for future type 2 diabetes risk. Which factor represents an important non-modifiable or historical risk marker?
Options:
Sedentary lifestyle
Central obesity
Previous gestational diabetes
Excessive energy intake
Tobacco use
Correct Answer: Previous gestational diabetes
Explanation: Previous gestational diabetes is a historical risk marker for later type 2 diabetes, whereas obesity, inactivity, diet and tobacco exposure are potentially modifiable.
MCQ 18
Question:
A low-cost community programme proposes urine glucose testing as the sole screening test for diabetes. Which limitation makes this approach unsuitable for reliable diagnosis?
Options:
Renal glucose handling varies between individuals
Urinary glucose directly measures pancreatic β-cell mass
Urinary glucose remains elevated after plasma glucose normalizes
Renal glycosuria reliably identifies autoimmune diabetes
Urinary glucose accurately reflects average glycaemia over months
Correct Answer: Renal glucose handling varies between individuals
Explanation: The renal threshold and handling of glucose vary, so urine glucose cannot reliably replace accepted plasma glucose or HbA1c-based diagnostic testing.
MCQ 19
Question:
Two population surveys conducted in Pakistan report different estimates for the prevalence of diabetes. Both are methodologically reasonable. Which factor can most appropriately explain the difference without assuming that either study is incorrect?
Options:
Diabetes prevalence should be identical in every population
Only genetic factors determine national diabetes prevalence
Screening methods have no effect on measured prevalence
Population, diagnostic method and year of assessment may differ
Urbanization consistently lowers the measured burden of diabetes
Correct Answer: Population, diagnostic method and year of assessment may differ
Explanation: Prevalence estimates vary with the population studied, diagnostic criteria or methods used, and the time at which the survey was conducted.
MCQ 20
Question:
A 41-year-old woman with central obesity, acanthosis nigricans, hypertension and dyslipidaemia has marked insulin resistance. Which management approach best addresses the overall syndrome rather than glucose alone?
Options:
Restrict carbohydrate intake without changing physical activity
Weight reduction, regular activity and control of cardiovascular risks
Begin insulin while leaving associated risk factors untreated
Use an insulin secretagogue as the sole long-term intervention
Treat hypertension while avoiding weight-management measures
Correct Answer: Weight reduction, regular activity and control of cardiovascular risks
Explanation: Management of insulin resistance should improve insulin sensitivity through weight loss and activity while also treating associated cardiovascular risk factors.
Assessment scope and curriculum coverage derived from the supplied Topic 7 specification. :contentReference[oaicite:0]{index=0}