AIM β’ KMU Exam Practice
KMU Past Paper Practice
Topic 24 β Coronavirus, MMR and Tumor Viruses: Pathogenesis, Epidemiology and Control
3rd Year MBBS β’ 20 A-Type Single Best Answer MCQs
MCQ 1
Question:
A 58-year-old man develops fever and respiratory symptoms after attending a crowded indoor gathering. Several attendees subsequently become ill. Which combination best explains why this setting facilitated coronavirus transmission?
Options:
Low humidity with fecal contamination
Close contact with limited indoor ventilation
Exposure to contaminated drinking water
Contact with infected arthropod vectors
Consumption of improperly cooked food
Correct Answer: Close contact with limited indoor ventilation
Explanation: Coronavirus spreads efficiently through virus-containing respiratory particles. Prolonged close contact in poorly ventilated indoor spaces increases the concentration and duration of respiratory exposure.
MCQ 2
Question:
A patient with lower respiratory coronavirus disease has a negative rapid antigen test despite persistent symptoms. The physician requires a more sensitive method that identifies viral genetic material. Which investigation is most appropriate?
Options:
Serum antibody estimation
Chest radiographic examination
Nucleic acid amplification testing
Routine bacterial culture
Peripheral blood microscopy
Correct Answer: Nucleic acid amplification testing
Explanation: Nucleic acid amplification methods detect coronavirus RNA directly and are appropriate when specific confirmation of active infection is required.
MCQ 3
Question:
Region X reports twice as many coronavirus cases as Region Y. Region X has extensive community testing, while Region Y has limited laboratory access. Which epidemiological conclusion is most defensible?
Options:
Region X has twice the true transmission rate
Region Y has greater population immunity
Region X has a more pathogenic strain
Case detection differences may distort comparison
Region Y has no community transmission
Correct Answer: Case detection differences may distort comparison
Explanation: Recorded incidence depends partly on testing and surveillance intensity. Apparent geographical differences must therefore be interpreted alongside differences in case detection.
MCQ 4
Question:
A researcher studies replication of an enveloped respiratory virus and finds that its genomic RNA can function directly in the infected cell as messenger RNA. Which viral property is being demonstrated?
Options:
Positive-sense RNA genome
Negative-sense RNA genome
Double-stranded DNA genome
Single-stranded DNA genome
Double-stranded RNA genome
Correct Answer: Positive-sense RNA genome
Explanation: Coronavirus contains positive-sense single-stranded RNA, allowing its genomic RNA to function in the direction required for viral protein synthesis after entry.
MCQ 5
Question:
An unvaccinated 8-year-old develops fever followed by respiratory symptoms and a generalized rash. Several classmates develop similar illness. Which feature of the responsible virus most strongly supports the possibility of effective population prevention through vaccination?
Options:
Persistent infection of hepatocytes
Multiple unrelated animal reservoirs
Frequent vector-borne transmission
Continuous antigenic replacement
Humans serving as the principal reservoir
Correct Answer: Humans serving as the principal reservoir
Explanation: Measles transmission is maintained primarily among humans. High population immunity can therefore markedly reduce circulation by removing susceptible hosts from the transmission chain.
MCQ 6
Question:
A child with suspected measles is evaluated during a community outbreak. The physician explains that the skin eruption is not simply the result of direct viral destruction of epidermal cells. Which process contributes most importantly to development of the rash?
Options:
Antibody-mediated erythrocyte destruction
Cellular response against infected tissues
Bacterial toxin release into circulation
Immune-complex obstruction of dermal vessels
Direct platelet destruction by the virus
Correct Answer: Cellular response against infected tissues
Explanation: The measles exanthem largely reflects the host cell-mediated immune response directed against virus-infected cells after systemic viral spread.
MCQ 7
Question:
A district surveillance team confirms several measles cases in neighboring schools. The affected communities have gaps in childhood immunization. Which population characteristic most strongly allows continued outbreaks?
Options:
High frequency of bacterial carriage
Increasing exposure to insect vectors
Large pool of susceptible individuals
Frequent contamination of drinking water
High prevalence of fungal colonization
Correct Answer: Large pool of susceptible individuals
Explanation: Inadequate population immunity leaves enough susceptible hosts for sustained person-to-person transmission, making outbreaks more likely after introduction of measles.
MCQ 8
Question:
A 20-year-old man develops fever and bilateral painful swelling over the parotid regions. Four days later, he develops upper abdominal pain. Which feature of the infection best explains involvement of an organ distant from the salivary glands?
Options:
Direct spread along salivary ducts
Extension through adjacent facial tissues
Retrograde spread through peripheral nerves
Systemic dissemination during viremia
Secondary bacterial invasion of the pancreas
Correct Answer: Systemic dissemination during viremia
Explanation: Mumps begins in the respiratory tract and can disseminate through the bloodstream, allowing involvement of salivary glands, pancreas, CNS and gonads.
MCQ 9
Question:
A young adult presents with painful parotid enlargement. Serum amylase is elevated, but the physician requests a more specific investigation because other disorders can also increase amylase. Which approach provides better etiological confirmation?
Options:
Molecular detection of viral RNA
Repeat measurement of serum amylase
Peripheral leukocyte differential count
Plain radiography of the parotid region
Routine culture for pyogenic bacteria
Correct Answer: Molecular detection of viral RNA
Explanation: Elevated amylase supports salivary-gland involvement but is nonspecific. Detection of mumps viral RNA provides direct evidence of the infecting virus.
MCQ 10
Question:
A woman develops a mild febrile rash illness during early pregnancy. Her newborn later has ocular, auditory and cardiac abnormalities. Which sequence best explains development of these abnormalities?
Options:
Maternal antibodies β fetal hemolysis β organ ischemia
Maternal infection β viremia β placental spread β fetal injury
Maternal fever β dehydration β placental calcification β malformation
Maternal rash β bacterial invasion β fetal septicemia β fibrosis
Maternal lymphadenopathy β venous obstruction β fetal hypoxia
Correct Answer: Maternal infection β viremia β placental spread β fetal injury
Explanation: Rubella can enter the maternal bloodstream, cross the placenta and infect developing fetal tissues, where interference with cellular growth produces congenital abnormalities.
MCQ 11
Question:
During investigation of a rubella outbreak, public-health officials identify several women of reproductive age without documented immunity. Which preventive principle has the greatest long-term importance for reducing congenital disease?
Options:
Routine antibacterial prophylaxis during pregnancy
Regular chest imaging during pregnancy
Reducing exposure to contaminated water
Maintaining adequate population vaccination
Screening communities for bacterial carriage
Correct Answer: Maintaining adequate population vaccination
Explanation: Sustained vaccination reduces rubella circulation and therefore reduces the chance that susceptible pregnant women will encounter the virus and transmit it to the fetus.
MCQ 12
Question:
A cervical biopsy from a woman with persistent high-risk HPV infection shows increasing epithelial dysplasia. Viral protein analysis demonstrates interference with two major tumor-suppressor pathways. Which pair of host proteins is principally affected?
Options:
MYC and RAS
BCL2 and ABL
p53 and RB
APC and RET
BRCA1 and WT1
Correct Answer: p53 and RB
Explanation: High-risk HPV E6 promotes loss of p53 activity, while E7 disrupts RB-mediated cell-cycle control, allowing abnormal epithelial cells to continue proliferating.
MCQ 13
Question:
A patient with a lymphoid malignancy is found to have evidence of Epstein-Barr virus within the tumor. Which characteristic of this virus is most relevant to its long-term oncogenic potential?
Options:
Establishment of persistent latent infection
Production of a circulating exotoxin
Exclusive infection of erythrocytes
Replication only in hepatocytes
Transmission through arthropod vectors
Correct Answer: Establishment of persistent latent infection
Explanation: EBV can persist lifelong in a latent state. Viral proteins expressed during persistence can influence cellular survival and proliferation, contributing to oncogenesis.
MCQ 14
Question:
A man with long-standing chronic viral hepatitis develops a hepatic mass diagnosed as hepatocellular carcinoma. His virus is an enveloped positive-sense RNA virus. Which infection most closely fits this description?
Options:
Human papillomavirus
Epstein-Barr virus
Hepatitis B virus
Hepatitis C virus
Human herpesvirus 8
Correct Answer: Hepatitis C virus
Explanation: HCV is an enveloped positive-sense RNA virus. Persistent hepatic inflammation and repeated regeneration during chronic infection increase the risk of hepatocellular carcinoma.
MCQ 15
Question:
Two patients with chronic viral hepatitis develop hepatocellular carcinoma. In one patient, viral DNA has become incorporated into hepatocyte DNA and may directly contribute to genomic instability. Which virus is responsible?
Options:
Hepatitis C virus
Hepatitis B virus
Epstein-Barr virus
Human herpesvirus 8
Rubella virus
Correct Answer: Hepatitis B virus
Explanation: HBV can contribute to hepatocarcinogenesis through chronic inflammation and additional effects related to integration of viral DNA and viral proteins.
MCQ 16
Question:
A 52-year-old patient is diagnosed with adult T-cell leukemia/lymphoma. Viral studies identify a retrovirus whose genetic material becomes incorporated into the host genome and promotes prolonged lymphocyte proliferation. Which virus is most likely involved?
Options:
Epstein-Barr virus
Human herpesvirus 8
Human papillomavirus
Hepatitis C virus
HTLV-1
Correct Answer: HTLV-1
Explanation: HTLV-1 is an oncogenic retrovirus associated with adult T-cell leukemia/lymphoma; integration and viral regulatory effects promote T-cell proliferation and survival.
MCQ 17
Question:
A patient with impaired immune control develops a vascular neoplasm involving the skin. Histological tissue testing demonstrates an oncogenic herpesvirus. Which viral association best explains the lesion?
Options:
HPV with cervical carcinoma
EBV with Burkitt lymphoma
HHV-8 with Kaposi sarcoma
HTLV-1 with T-cell leukemia
HBV with hepatocellular carcinoma
Correct Answer: HHV-8 with Kaposi sarcoma
Explanation: HHV-8 is Kaposi sarcoma-associated herpesvirus. Impaired immune control facilitates persistent viral effects that contribute to the characteristic vascular neoplasm.
MCQ 18
Question:
A patient tests positive for a high-risk oncogenic virus but has no evidence of dysplasia or malignancy. The patient is concerned that cancer is inevitable. Which principle of viral oncogenesis best addresses this concern?
Options:
Malignancy develops immediately after viral entry
Viral infection alone determines tumor development
Acute necrosis is required before transformation
Additional cellular abnormalities influence progression
Bacterial superinfection initiates viral carcinogenesis
Correct Answer: Additional cellular abnormalities influence progression
Explanation: Oncogenic viral infection increases cancer risk but is generally not sufficient by itself; persistent infection interacts with host factors and accumulated cellular abnormalities.
MCQ 19
Question:
Following an increase in coronavirus admissions across several Pakistani districts, health authorities strengthen case reporting, expand diagnostic capacity and provide coordinated public-health communication. Which governmental function is primarily illustrated?
Options:
Population surveillance and coordinated outbreak response
Replacement of prevention by hospital treatment
Restriction of control to individual diagnosis
Termination of epidemiological case reporting
Dependence on clinical immunity without surveillance
Correct Answer: Population surveillance and coordinated outbreak response
Explanation: Government control programs combine surveillance, laboratory support, communication and coordinated public-health action rather than relying only on treatment of individual cases.
MCQ 20
Question:
A public-health team is planning measures for a community experiencing simultaneous respiratory viral outbreaks. The team wants an intervention that acts before infection occurs and also reduces the number of susceptible individuals available for transmission of measles, mumps and rubella. Which approach best meets both objectives?
Options:
Laboratory confirmation after symptoms appear
Hospital isolation after complications develop
Antibiotic administration to exposed contacts
Radiological screening of asymptomatic contacts
Maintaining high vaccination coverage
Correct Answer: Maintaining high vaccination coverage
Explanation: Vaccination is primary prevention and reduces the susceptible population, thereby protecting individuals while limiting sustained MMR transmission within the community.